Question 1

In competitive indicator-labeled immunoassays, the label is typically placed on the ________ in the reagent and is used to measure ________ in the patient sample.

Accepted Answer

A) antigen, antigen 
B) antigen, antibody 
C) antibody, antigen 
D) antibody, antibody 
A) antigen, antigen 
B) antigen, antibody 
C) antibody, antigen 
D) antibody, antibody A

Question 2

Suppose your laboratory uses a noncompetitive labeled-antibody immunometric technique that incorporates spectrophotometry for the measurement of a particular antigen.As the amount of measured antigen present in the patient sample ________, the absorbance of the test solution will ________.

Accepted Answer

A) increases, increase 
B) increases, decrease 
C) decreases, decrease 
D) both a and c are correct 
A) increases, increase 
B) increases, decrease 
C) decreases, decrease 
D) both a and c are correct D

Question 3

Often when performing immunoassays, it is important to know the titer of the antibody.The titer defines:

Accepted Answer

A) the amount of specific antibody present 
B) the affinity of the antibody for the antigen being measured 
C) the avidity of the antibody for the antigen being measured 
D) the specificity of the antibody for the antigen being measured 
A) the amount of specific antibody present 
B) the affinity of the antibody for the antigen being measured 
C) the avidity of the antibody for the antigen being measured 
D) the specificity of the antibody for the antigen being measured A

Question 4

In antiglobulin testing, the purpose of adding Coombs' reagent is to:

Accepted Answer

A) provide a bridge between non-agglutinated particles to establish cross-linking to achieve agglutination 
B) solubilize particles in order for agglutination to disappear, allowing any following reactions to be more evident 
C) inactivate complement 
D) activate complement 
A) provide a bridge between non-agglutinated particles to establish cross-linking to achieve agglutination 
B) solubilize particles in order for agglutination to disappear, allowing any following reactions to be more evident 
C) inactivate complement 
D) activate complement

Question 5

Suppose your laboratory uses a sandwich immunoassay to measure a specific hormone.Following release of a patient's results, the physician questioned the results because they did not match with the patient's symptoms; the results appear falsely elevated.What steps should be taken to evaluate the physician's concerns?

Accepted Answer

A) Rerun the assay on the original patient sample specimen with fresh reagent. 
B) Pre-incubate the patient sample with non-immune globulins before running the sandwich immunoassay. 
C) Rerun the assay with fresh controls. 
D) Decrease the temperature of the reaction to decrease the results to a more suitable level. 
A) Rerun the assay on the original patient sample specimen with fresh reagent. 
B) Pre-incubate the patient sample with non-immune globulins before running the sandwich immunoassay. 
C) Rerun the assay with fresh controls. 
D) Decrease the temperature of the reaction to decrease the results to a more suitable level.

Question 6

Monoclonal antibodies are antibodies that are:

Accepted Answer

A) derived from a single line of cells that are directed toward multiple epitopes on an antigen 
B) derived from a single line of cells that are directed toward a specific single epitope on an antigen 
C) derived from multiple cell lines that are directed toward multiple epitopes on an antigen 
D) derived from multiple cell lines that are directed toward a specific single epitope on an antigen 
A) derived from a single line of cells that are directed toward multiple epitopes on an antigen 
B) derived from a single line of cells that are directed toward a specific single epitope on an antigen 
C) derived from multiple cell lines that are directed toward multiple epitopes on an antigen 
D) derived from multiple cell lines that are directed toward a specific single epitope on an antigen

Question 7

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationship between immunological quantification by laboratory analysis and biological functionality of the analyte?

Accepted Answer

A) Immunological quantification and biological functionality are always very closely aligned because of the specificity of the antigen-antibody reaction. 
B) Immunological quantification is a more important consideration than biological functionality, because immunological quantification more correctly predicts the activity of the analyte in the body. 
C) Immunological quantification may overestimate biological functionality, because the antibody may react with an inactive analyte (such as a metabolite) that contains the antigenic determinant. 
D) Immunological quantification will only relate to biological functionality of an analyte if the laboratory analysis is performed on a fresh biological sample within 30 minutes of the time it is received in the laboratory. 
A) Immunological quantification and biological functionality are always very closely aligned because of the specificity of the antigen-antibody reaction. 
B) Immunological quantification is a more important consideration than biological functionality, because immunological quantification more correctly predicts the activity of the analyte in the body. 
C) Immunological quantification may overestimate biological functionality, because the antibody may react with an inactive analyte (such as a metabolite) that contains the antigenic determinant. 
D) Immunological quantification will only relate to biological functionality of an analyte if the laboratory analysis is performed on a fresh biological sample within 30 minutes of the time it is received in the laboratory.

Question 8

What is the sensitivity range typically seen with indicator-labeled immunoassays?

Accepted Answer

A) g/L 
B) mg/L 
C) mg/dL 
D) ng/mL 
A) g/L 
B) mg/L 
C) mg/dL 
D) ng/mL

Question 9

Polyclonal antibodies are antibodies that are:

Accepted Answer

A) derived from a single line of cells that are directed toward multiple epitopes on an antigen 
B) derived from a single line of cells that are directed toward a specific single epitope on an antigen 
C) derived from multiple cell lines that are directed toward multiple epitopes on an antigen 
D) derived from multiple cell lines that are directed toward a specific single epitope on an antigen 
A) derived from a single line of cells that are directed toward multiple epitopes on an antigen 
B) derived from a single line of cells that are directed toward a specific single epitope on an antigen 
C) derived from multiple cell lines that are directed toward multiple epitopes on an antigen 
D) derived from multiple cell lines that are directed toward a specific single epitope on an antigen

Question 10

____________ is the most sensitive technique using precipitation as an endpoint.

Accepted Answer

A) Immunofixation 
B) Immunonephelometry 
C) Radioimmunoassay 
D) Fluorometric immunoassay 
A) Immunofixation 
B) Immunonephelometry 
C) Radioimmunoassay 
D) Fluorometric immunoassay

Question 11

In the Western blot technique, antigens separated by the electrophoretic step are blotted onto a strip of:

Accepted Answer

A) nitrocellulose paper 
B) polyacrylamide gel 
C) agarose gel 
D) neutral agar 
A) nitrocellulose paper 
B) polyacrylamide gel 
C) agarose gel 
D) neutral agar

Question 12

Which one of the following sample conditions would be acceptable in complement fixation testing?

Accepted Answer

A) a hemolyzed sample 
B) a lipemic sample 
C) plasma collected in EDTA 
D) plasma collected in heparin 
A) a hemolyzed sample 
B) a lipemic sample 
C) plasma collected in EDTA 
D) plasma collected in heparin

Question 13

The direct Coombs' test measures the presence of antibody _______, and the indirect Coombs' test measures _______.

Accepted Answer

A) in the serum, antigens on cells 
B) on cells, antigens on cells 
C) in the serum, free antibodies in the serum 
D) on cells, free antibodies in the serum 
A) in the serum, antigens on cells 
B) on cells, antigens on cells 
C) in the serum, free antibodies in the serum 
D) on cells, free antibodies in the serum

Question 14

Considering the principles of agglutination reactions, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

A) Antigens with single antigenic determinant sites will not result in agglutination. 
B) IgG is more efficient at agglutination than IgM. 
C) Agglutination reactions are generally used to detect antibody. 
D) Reverse agglutination reactions are generally used to detect soluble antigens. 
A) Antigens with single antigenic determinant sites will not result in agglutination. 
B) IgG is more efficient at agglutination than IgM. 
C) Agglutination reactions are generally used to detect antibody. 
D) Reverse agglutination reactions are generally used to detect soluble antigens.

Question 15

Which of the following situations would produce a false increase in light scatter, causing falsely elevated results by immunonephelometry?

Accepted Answer

A) experimental conditions where the antibody is not in excess 
B) hyperlipidemia using end-point immunonephelometry 
C) hyperlipidemia using rate immunonephelometry 
D) use of a hemolyzed sample with rate immunonephelometry 
A) experimental conditions where the antibody is not in excess 
B) hyperlipidemia using end-point immunonephelometry 
C) hyperlipidemia using rate immunonephelometry 
D) use of a hemolyzed sample with rate immunonephelometry

Question 16

Which of the following best describes the visualization step in the Western blot technique?

Accepted Answer

A) use of a stain specific for the antigen separated 
B) reaction with a labeled antihuman immunoglobulin antibody 
C) the presence of a fluorescent pigment in the transfer medium 
D) the UV/Vis light-absorption properties of the separated antigen 
A) use of a stain specific for the antigen separated 
B) reaction with a labeled antihuman immunoglobulin antibody 
C) the presence of a fluorescent pigment in the transfer medium 
D) the UV/Vis light-absorption properties of the separated antigen

Question 17

One of the factors that influences agglutination reactions is the presence of a zeta potential, a negative surface charge, which must be overcome to permit cross-linking and agglutination.Which of the following steps can assist in overcoming the zeta potential?

Accepted Answer

A) Increase the ionic strength of the medium. 
B) Adjust the pH of the medium to physiological pH. 
C) Increase the viscosity of the medium. 
D) All of the above will assist in overcoming charge repulsion. 
A) Increase the ionic strength of the medium. 
B) Adjust the pH of the medium to physiological pH. 
C) Increase the viscosity of the medium. 
D) All of the above will assist in overcoming charge repulsion.

Question 18

Which of the following provides the correct explanation for a decrease in light scatter as concentration of hapten (such as a drug) increases in nephelometric inhibition immunoassay (NINIA)?

Accepted Answer

A) As the concentration of hapten (drug) increases, the excess of antibody decreases, resulting in less light scatter. 
B) As the concentration of hapten (drug) increases, more soluble hapten (drug)-antibody complexes form, reducing the amount of light scatter. 
C) As the concentration of hapten (drug) increases, more hapten (drug)-antibody complexes form, which fix complement and destroy the complex, reducing the amount of light scatter. 
D) As the concentration of hapten (drug) increases, more insoluble hapten (drug)-antibody complexes form, resulting in less light scatter. 
A) As the concentration of hapten (drug) increases, the excess of antibody decreases, resulting in less light scatter. 
B) As the concentration of hapten (drug) increases, more soluble hapten (drug)-antibody complexes form, reducing the amount of light scatter. 
C) As the concentration of hapten (drug) increases, more hapten (drug)-antibody complexes form, which fix complement and destroy the complex, reducing the amount of light scatter. 
D) As the concentration of hapten (drug) increases, more insoluble hapten (drug)-antibody complexes form, resulting in less light scatter.

Question 19

Suppose your laboratory uses a competitive binding assay with a labeled antigen that incorporates spectrophotometry for the measurement of a particular antigen.As the amount of measured antigen ________ in the patient sample, the absorbance of the test solution will ________.

Accepted Answer

A) increases, increase 
B) increases, decrease 
C) decreases, decrease 
D) both a and c are correct 
A) increases, increase 
B) increases, decrease 
C) decreases, decrease 
D) both a and c are correct

Question 20

Complement fixation assays are measured by:

Accepted Answer

A) nephelometry 
B) densitometry 
C) spectrophotometry 
D) direct visual observation of agglutination 
A) nephelometry 
B) densitometry 
C) spectrophotometry 
D) direct visual observation of agglutination

Exam 8: Immunochemical Techniques

In competitive indicator-labeled immunoassays, the label is typically placed on the ________ in the reagent and is used to measure ________ in the patient sample.

Suppose your laboratory uses a noncompetitive labeled-antibody immunometric technique that incorporates spectrophotometry for the measurement of a particular antigen.As the amount of measured antigen present in the patient sample ________, the absorbance of the test solution will ________.

Often when performing immunoassays, it is important to know the titer of the antibody.The titer defines:

In antiglobulin testing, the purpose of adding Coombs' reagent is to:

Monoclonal antibodies are antibodies that are:

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationship between immunological quantification by laboratory analysis and biological functionality of the analyte?

What is the sensitivity range typically seen with indicator-labeled immunoassays?

Polyclonal antibodies are antibodies that are:

____________ is the most sensitive technique using precipitation as an endpoint.

In the Western blot technique, antigens separated by the electrophoretic step are blotted onto a strip of:

Which one of the following sample conditions would be acceptable in complement fixation testing?

The direct Coombs' test measures the presence of antibody _______, and the indirect Coombs' test measures _______.

Considering the principles of agglutination reactions, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Which of the following situations would produce a false increase in light scatter, causing falsely elevated results by immunonephelometry?

Which of the following best describes the visualization step in the Western blot technique?

One of the factors that influences agglutination reactions is the presence of a zeta potential, a negative surface charge, which must be overcome to permit cross-linking and agglutination.Which of the following steps can assist in overcoming the zeta potential?

Which of the following provides the correct explanation for a decrease in light scatter as concentration of hapten (such as a drug) increases in nephelometric inhibition immunoassay (NINIA)?

Suppose your laboratory uses a competitive binding assay with a labeled antigen that incorporates spectrophotometry for the measurement of a particular antigen.As the amount of measured antigen ________ in the patient sample, the absorbance of the test solution will ________.

Complement fixation assays are measured by:

Basic Laboratory Principles and Techniques

Spectral Techniques

Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry: Theory, Practice, and Instrumentation

Chromatographic Techniques

Laboratory Analysis of Hemoglobin Variants

Electrophoresis

Immunological Reactions

Principles for Competitive-Binding Assays

Laboratory Approaches to Serology Testing

Measurement of Colligative Properties

Electrochemistry: Principles and Measurement

Molecular Diagnostics

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

Clinical Enzymology

Protein Isoforms: Isoenzymes and Isoforms

Interferences in Chemical Analysis

Sources and Control of Preanalytical Variation

Laboratory Management

Laboratory Automation

Point-Of-Care Near-Patient Testing

Laboratory Information Systems

Laboratory Statistics

Reference Intervals and Clinical Decision Limits

Quality Control for the Clinical Chemistry Laboratory

Evaluation of Methods

Classification and Description of Proteins, Lipids, and Carbohydrates

Physiology and Pathophysiology of Body Water and Electrolytes

Acid-Base Control and Acid-Base Disorders

Renal Function

Liver Function

Diagnosis of Viral Hepatitis

Bone Disease

The Pancreas: Function and Chemical Pathology

Gastrointestinal Function

Cardiac and Muscle Disease

Coronary Artery Disease: Lipid Metabolism

Diabetes Mellitus

Iron and Porphyrin Metabolism

Hemoglobin

Human Nutrition

Trace Metals

Vitamins

Pregnancy and Fetal Development

The Newborn

Extravascular Biological Fluids

Nervous System

General Endocrinology

Thyroid

The Gonads

Adrenal Hormones and Hypertension

Diseases of Genetic Origin

Neoplasia

Laboratory Evaluation of the Transplant Recipient

Toxicology

Addiction and Substance Abuse

Filters

In competitive indicator-labeled immunoassays, the label is typically placed on the in the reagent and is used to measure in the patient sample.

Suppose your laboratory uses a noncompetitive labeled-antibody immunometric technique that incorporates spectrophotometry for the measurement of a particular antigen.As the amount of measured antigen present in the patient sample , the absorbance of the test solution will .

The direct Coombs' test measures the presence of antibody _, and the indirect Coombs' test measures _.

Suppose your laboratory uses a competitive binding assay with a labeled antigen that incorporates spectrophotometry for the measurement of a particular antigen.As the amount of measured antigen in the patient sample, the absorbance of the test solution will .