Exam 42: Mycobacteria
Exam 1: Microbial Taxonomy10 Questions
Exam 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure25 Questions
Exam 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions25 Questions
Exam 4: Laboratory Safety25 Questions
Exam 5: Specimen Management20 Questions
Exam 6: Role of Microscopy15 Questions
Exam 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification30 Questions
Exam 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for Microbial Identification and Characterization15 Questions
Exam 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection10 Questions
Exam 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases20 Questions
Exam 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance15 Questions
Exam 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing20 Questions
Exam 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms15 Questions
Exam 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms20 Questions
Exam 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 19: Enterobacteriaceae20 Questions
Exam 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms10 Questions
Exam 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 23: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 24: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis, Comamonas, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms20 Questions
Exam 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms10 Questions
Exam 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella, Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 31: Haemophilus20 Questions
Exam 32: Bartonella and Afipia5 Questions
Exam 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter10 Questions
Exam 34: Legionella5 Questions
Exam 35: Brucella5 Questions
Exam 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and Related Species10 Questions
Exam 37: Francisella5 Questions
Exam 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum Minus5 Questions
Exam 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis20 Questions
Exam 40: Overview and General Considerations24 Questions
Exam 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms25 Questions
Exam 42: Mycobacteria45 Questions
Exam 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents10 Questions
Exam 44: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma10 Questions
Exam 45: The Spirochetes24 Questions
Exam 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic Infections: Overview20 Questions
Exam 47: Intestinal Protozoa20 Questions
Exam 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa22 Questions
Exam 49: Other Protozoa12 Questions
Exam 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms10 Questions
Exam 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms8 Questions
Exam 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes10 Questions
Exam 53: Intestinal Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 54: Tissue Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 55: Intestinal Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes8 Questions
Exam 57: Blood Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies20 Questions
Exam 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses20 Questions
Exam 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds16 Questions
Exam 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis Jiroveci5 Questions
Exam 62: The Yeasts18 Questions
Exam 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention9 Questions
Exam 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology36 Questions
Exam 65: Viruses in Human Disease32 Questions
Exam 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention19 Questions
Exam 67: Bloodstream Infections15 Questions
Exam 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract14 Questions
Exam 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck27 Questions
Exam 70: Meningitis, Encephalitis, and Other Infections of the Central Nervous System12 Questions
Exam 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses14 Questions
Exam 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract10 Questions
Exam 73: Genital Tract Infections24 Questions
Exam 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections10 Questions
Exam 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections13 Questions
Exam 76: Normally Sterile Body Fluids, Bone and Bone Marrow, and Solid Tissues10 Questions
Exam 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory14 Questions
Exam 78: Infection Control10 Questions
Exam 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism5 Questions
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The 3-day test that is useful for identifying the rapid growers, M.fortuitum and M.chelonae, and that measures the rate by which this enzyme breaks down phenolphthalein disulfate into phenolphthalein and other salts is the ____________ test.
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
Fluorescent staining is more sensitive than conventional carbolfuchsin stains.What counterstain is used during the procedure?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
In the identification of mycobacterial isolates, the catalase test involves the:
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
The specimen of choice for detecting tuberculous pulmonary mycobacterial disease is:
(Multiple Choice)
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Negative mycobacterial cultures are reported final and the cultures are discarded after what period?
(Multiple Choice)
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The specimens of choice for detecting nontuberculous mycobacterial disease are:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which continuous growth system uses a CO₂ sensor to monitor mycobacterial growth?
(Multiple Choice)
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Under what circumstance might slow-growing mycobacteria appear to produce colonies in a few days?
(Multiple Choice)
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The tuberculin skin test, or the purified protein derivative (PPD)test, is based on:
(Multiple Choice)
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The first test that is always performed on organisms growing on solid or liquid mycobacterial media is a(n):
(Multiple Choice)
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When culturing for Mycobacterium, rapid growers usually produce colonies within how many days after subculture?
(Multiple Choice)
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The recent emergence of epidemic multidrug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, in conjunction with the end of the downward trend of reported cases of tuberculosis in the United States, has been largely attributed to:
(Multiple Choice)
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A positive tuberculin skin test, or PPD test, is characterized by:
(Multiple Choice)
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The most commonly isolated mycobacterium in the United States is:
(Multiple Choice)
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Characteristics that are found in the bacteria called Mycobacterium are:
(Multiple Choice)
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Slow-growing NTM whose colonies are pigmented when grown in the dark or the light are referred to as:
(Multiple Choice)
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The stain that requires heating the slide for better penetration of stain into the mycobacterial cell wall is known as the:
(Multiple Choice)
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In the identification of mycobacterial isolates, the Tween 80 test involves:
(Multiple Choice)
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