Exam 26: Securitization Index

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A claim to the present value of the interest payments made by the mortgage holders in an MBS pool is

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B

A commercial bank operating under an originate-to-distribute model is acting most like

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B

Servicing a pass-through security refers to

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A

The ability to refinance a mortgage with no prepayment penalty gives the borrower a long-term put option on interest rates.

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Deposit-taking institutions have followed and originate-to-distribute model of loan origination only since the financial crisis in 2007.

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NHA MBS pass-through bondholders can be protected against default risk by CMHC housing insurance.

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Which of the following is NOT true of an R class CMO issue?

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One hundred identical mortgages are pooled together into a pass-through security. Each mortgage has a $150,000 principal, a fixed annual interest rate of 8 percent (paid monthly), and is fully amortized over a term of 30 years. For the first monthly payment, what portion is principal and what portion is interest?

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Overseas bank is pooling 50 similar and fully amortized mortgages into a pass-through security. The face value of each mortgage is $100,000 paying 180 monthly interest and principal payments at a fixed rate of 9 percent per annum. What is the monthly payment received by investors of the mortgage pass-through if the FI deducts a 50 basis points servicing fee?

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The following information is for a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO). Tranche A has a face value of $110 million and pays 5 percent annually. Tranche B has a face value of $90 million and pays 7 percent annually. What is the principal outstanding on Tranche A and Tranche B after the end of year payment in the previous question?

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An interest-only (IO) mortgage-backed strip is a rare example of a negative duration asset.

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Mortgage pools that are assumed to prepay at a rate of speed that is more rapid than the PSA model would indicate, are said to prepay at less than 100 percent PSA behavior because the mortgage life and balance will exist for a longer time.

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The availability of a liquid secondary market for asset-backed securities provided an incentive for FIs to follow an originate-to-distribute strategy of loan origination.

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The following information is for a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO). Tranche A has a face value of $50 million and pays 6 percent annually. Tranche B has a face value of $50 million and pays 8 percent annually. All mortgages have maturities of 30 years. If at the end of the first year, the trustee of the CMO receives total cash flows of $10 million, how are they distributed to Tranche A and B, respectively?

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What is defined as the sum of the products of the time when principal payments are received and the amount of principal received all divided by total principal outstanding?

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An FI operating in the United States funds a US$5 million residential mortgage in 2014 by allocating capital and by issuing demand deposits. The mortgage represents a loan-to-value of 70 percent. The demand deposits have a reserve requirement of 10 percent and a deposit insurance premium to FDIC of 23 basis points. What is the deposit insurance premium on the demand deposits issued to fund the mortgage?

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A principal-only (PO) mortgage pass-through strip security is attractive to investors that wish to increase the interest rate sensitivity of their portfolio.

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These bonds have some prepayment protection and expected durations of five to seven years depending on the level of interest rates and are primarily purchased by pension funds and life insurance companies.

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Which of the following assets have not been securitized by FIs?

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Prepayment models are attempts by professional mortgage portfolio managers to estimate the rate of prepayment on given mortgage pools.

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