Exam 17: Bone, Joint, and Soft Tissue Diseases and Disorders
Exam 1: Introduction to Concepts of Pathology16 Questions
Exam 2: Problems Affecting Multiple Systems20 Questions
Exam 3: Injury, Inflammation, and Healing20 Questions
Exam 4: The Immune System20 Questions
Exam 5: Infectious Disease20 Questions
Exam 6: Oncology20 Questions
Exam 7: The Integumentary System20 Questions
Exam 8: The Endocrine and Metabolic Systems20 Questions
Exam 9: The Cardiovascular System20 Questions
Exam 10: The Hematologic System20 Questions
Exam 11: The Respiratory System20 Questions
Exam 12: The Hepatic, Pancreatic, and Biliary Systems20 Questions
Exam 13: Introduction to Pathology of the Musculoskeletal System20 Questions
Exam 14: Genetic and Developmental Disorders20 Questions
Exam 15: Infectious Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System20 Questions
Exam 16: Musculoskeletal Neoplasms20 Questions
Exam 17: Bone, Joint, and Soft Tissue Diseases and Disorders22 Questions
Exam 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System Disorders20 Questions
Exam 19: Infectious Disorders of the Central Nervous System20 Questions
Exam 20: Degenerative Diseases of the Central Nervous System20 Questions
Exam 21: Stroke21 Questions
Exam 22: Traumatic Brain Injury20 Questions
Exam 23: Traumatic Spinal Cord Injury20 Questions
Exam 24: Cerebral Palsy20 Questions
Exam 25: The Peripheral Nervous System20 Questions
Exam 26: Behavioral, Social, and Environmental Factors Contributing to Disease and Dysfunction20 Questions
Exam 27: The Psychosocial-Spiritual Impact on Health Care20 Questions
Exam 28: Environmental and Occupational Medicine20 Questions
Exam 29: The Gastrointestinal System21 Questions
Exam 30: The Renal and Urologic Systems20 Questions
Exam 31: Central Nervous System Neoplasms20 Questions
Exam 32: Epilepsy21 Questions
Exam 33: Headache20 Questions
Exam 34: The Male Genital or Reproductive System20 Questions
Exam 35: The Female Genital or Reproductive System20 Questions
Exam 36: Vestibular Disorders20 Questions
Exam 37: Laboratory Tests and Values20 Questions
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What is the recommended sleeping and resting position for a person with ankylosing spondylitis (AS)?
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(Multiple Choice)
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D
What type of fracture most commonly occurs in distance runners?
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(Multiple Choice)
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B
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis complains of joint pain that lasted for 3 hours after her last therapy session.What is the appropriate action the physical therapist assistant (PTA)should take for today's exercise session?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
What age group is most likely to suffer from Osgood-Schlatter syndrome?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is the least effective treatment for Osgood-Schlatter syndrome?
(Multiple Choice)
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At what stage of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease does new bone replace necrotic bone?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following signs/symptoms is indicative of osteoarthritis?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the recommended minimum daily requirement of elemental calcium for a 70-year-old female?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is indicative of swan neck deformity?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following conditions is most likely to be improved with exercise?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following activities should be avoided by patients with a diagnosis of osteoporosis?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient reports to physical therapy and states that their bone mineral density testing T-score is −0.8.What is the correct interpretation of this data?
(Multiple Choice)
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How long does morning stiffness associated with osteoarthritis,typically last?
(Multiple Choice)
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Definitive osteophyte formation occurs at what grade of osteoarthritis?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following group of individuals is most likely to have the highest bone mass?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the most common presenting symptom in Paget's disease?
(Multiple Choice)
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How soon after the initial trauma can heterotopic ossification be seen on radiographic examination?
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Which of the following diagnostic tools is the most sensitive to pathologic fractures?
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