Exam 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
Exam 1: Microbial Taxonomy10 Questions
Exam 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure25 Questions
Exam 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions25 Questions
Exam 4: Laboratory Safety25 Questions
Exam 5: Specimen Management20 Questions
Exam 6: Role of Microscopy15 Questions
Exam 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification30 Questions
Exam 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for Microbial Identification and Characterization15 Questions
Exam 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection10 Questions
Exam 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases20 Questions
Exam 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance15 Questions
Exam 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing20 Questions
Exam 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms15 Questions
Exam 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms20 Questions
Exam 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 19: Enterobacteriaceae20 Questions
Exam 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms10 Questions
Exam 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 23: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 24: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis, Comamonas, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms20 Questions
Exam 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms10 Questions
Exam 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella, Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 31: Haemophilus20 Questions
Exam 32: Bartonella and Afipia5 Questions
Exam 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter10 Questions
Exam 34: Legionella5 Questions
Exam 35: Brucella5 Questions
Exam 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and Related Species10 Questions
Exam 37: Francisella5 Questions
Exam 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum Minus5 Questions
Exam 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis20 Questions
Exam 40: Overview and General Considerations24 Questions
Exam 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms25 Questions
Exam 42: Mycobacteria45 Questions
Exam 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents10 Questions
Exam 44: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma10 Questions
Exam 45: The Spirochetes24 Questions
Exam 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic Infections: Overview20 Questions
Exam 47: Intestinal Protozoa20 Questions
Exam 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa22 Questions
Exam 49: Other Protozoa12 Questions
Exam 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms10 Questions
Exam 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms8 Questions
Exam 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes10 Questions
Exam 53: Intestinal Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 54: Tissue Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 55: Intestinal Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes8 Questions
Exam 57: Blood Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies20 Questions
Exam 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses20 Questions
Exam 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds16 Questions
Exam 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis Jiroveci5 Questions
Exam 62: The Yeasts18 Questions
Exam 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention9 Questions
Exam 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology36 Questions
Exam 65: Viruses in Human Disease32 Questions
Exam 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention19 Questions
Exam 67: Bloodstream Infections15 Questions
Exam 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract14 Questions
Exam 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck27 Questions
Exam 70: Meningitis, Encephalitis, and Other Infections of the Central Nervous System12 Questions
Exam 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses14 Questions
Exam 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract10 Questions
Exam 73: Genital Tract Infections24 Questions
Exam 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections10 Questions
Exam 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections13 Questions
Exam 76: Normally Sterile Body Fluids, Bone and Bone Marrow, and Solid Tissues10 Questions
Exam 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory14 Questions
Exam 78: Infection Control10 Questions
Exam 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism5 Questions
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A 59-year-old patient with cancer who was receiving high doses of chemotherapy developed a secondary lung infection that was identified as a fungus.The organism disseminated, which ultimately was fatal to the patient.The organism isolated from sputum exhibited septate hyphae that were dichotomous.The organism is most likely which of the following?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
The mode of transmission for most of the dimorphic fungi is:
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Correct Answer:
B
A 16-year-old male teenager is diagnosed with a fungal infection of his foot, which he acquired at the gym.This infection would most likely be classified as a(n)_______ mycosis.
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
Urea agar is set up for quality control purposes using two Trichophyton spp.-T.mentagrophytes and T.rubrum.After the appropriate amount of incubation, both organisms are negative.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which phylum exhibits both a teleomorph and an anamorph form?
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Colonies are isolated 4 days after incubation from a skin infection that disseminated in a burn victim.A fungal infection is suspected.Which of the following is a possible organism that may be identified?
(Multiple Choice)
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The optimal temperature and length of time to incubate a sample suspected of containing a dermatophyte is _____° C for _____ days.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which fungal media is ideal for the recovery of organisms such as Microsporum and Trichophyton?
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A 29-year-old patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)is suspected of having a Cryptococcus neoformans infection in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).A CSF specimen is collected and set up on cycloheximide agar.In addition, an India ink stain is set up.The India ink stain reveals encapsulated yeast; however, 3 weeks later, the cycloheximide agar is negative.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
(Multiple Choice)
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A septate hyphae is microscopically observed using lactophenol cotton blue.Which organism can be ruled out as the cause of infection on the basis of this information?
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Blood cultures are collected from a 36-year-old patient suspected of having a disseminated fungal infection.History reveals that she was exposed to bird droppings and may have inhaled the conidia.What is the best blood culture system to use to ensure optimal recovery of this pathogen?
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Microscopically, this fungus appears barrel shaped with thick walls, which best describes which type of conidia?
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A capsule and phenoloxidase melanin synthesis are virulence factors contributing to the pathogenicity of which of the following organisms?
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A 28-year-old woman was gardening when a rose thorn pricked her finger, which later became infected.A sample is taken of the exudate and sent to the microbiology laboratory.Small, round, cigar-shaped structures are microscopically observed.She is most likely infected with which type of fungi?
(Multiple Choice)
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All mold cultures and clinical samples should always be handled in a Class _____ level biosafety cabinet.
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If a fungal colony is described as rugose, then it means that the colony:
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