Exam 10: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
Exam 1: Cellular Biology31 Questions
Exam 2: Genes and Genetic Diseases31 Questions
Exam 3: Epigenetics and Disease11 Questions
Exam 4: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology36 Questions
Exam 5: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases30 Questions
Exam 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing39 Questions
Exam 7: Adaptive Immunity20 Questions
Exam 8: Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense34 Questions
Exam 9: Stress and Disease14 Questions
Exam 10: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer19 Questions
Exam 11: Cancer Epidemiology12 Questions
Exam 12: Cancer in Children10 Questions
Exam 13: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System39 Questions
Exam 14: Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function37 Questions
Exam 15: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral Hemodynamics, and Motor Function32 Questions
Exam 16: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction37 Questions
Exam 17: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children27 Questions
Exam 18: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation31 Questions
Exam 19: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation43 Questions
Exam 20: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System24 Questions
Exam 21: Alterations of Hematologic Function57 Questions
Exam 22: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children27 Questions
Exam 23: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems37 Questions
Exam 24: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function66 Questions
Exam 25: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children23 Questions
Exam 26: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System32 Questions
Exam 27: Alterations of Pulmonary Function43 Questions
Exam 28: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children26 Questions
Exam 29: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems29 Questions
Exam 30: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function23 Questions
Exam 31: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children19 Questions
Exam 32: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems34 Questions
Exam 33: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System17 Questions
Exam 34: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System15 Questions
Exam 35: Structure and Function of the Digestive System25 Questions
Exam 36: Alterations of Digestive Function45 Questions
Exam 37: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children28 Questions
Exam 38: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System29 Questions
Exam 39: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function35 Questions
Exam 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children20 Questions
Exam 41: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument33 Questions
Exam 42: Alterations of the Integument in Children18 Questions
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A patient asks when adjuvant chemotherapy is used.How should the nurse respond? Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment is used:
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
What is the effect of telomere caps on cancer cells?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
A
A 25-year-old male develops a tumor of the breast glandular tissue.What type of tumor will be documented on the chart?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
A nurse is giving an example of inflammation as an etiology for cancer development.What is the best example the nurse should give?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 52-year-old male with hepatitis C recently developed hepatic cancer.Which of the following markers should be increased?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus.After 2 months, the virus is still active.Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer.Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which genetic change causes alterations in only one or a few nucleotide bases?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer.Which of the following terms best describes this growth?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following indicates a nurse understands a proto-oncogene? A proto-oncogene is best defined as a(n)_____ gene.
(Multiple Choice)
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A nurse is discussing preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin.What is the nurse describing?
(Multiple Choice)
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An oncologist is discussing when a cancer cell loses differentiation.Which of the following is the oncologist describing?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 45-year-old male presents with persistent, severe stomach pain.Testing reveals a peptic ulcer.Further laboratory tests reveal the presence of Helicobacter pylori.Which of the following is of concern for this patient?
(Multiple Choice)
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A primary care provider is attempting to diagnose cancer and is looking for a tumor marker.Which of the following could be a possible marker?
(Multiple Choice)
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Brachytherapy is being used to treat cancer in a patient.What types of cancers respond well to brachytherapy? (select all that apply)
(Multiple Choice)
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Which information should the nurse include when teaching about angiogenic factors? In cancer, angiogenic factors stimulate:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which statement indicates the patient has a correct understanding of metastasis? The most common route of metastasis is through the blood vessels and:
(Multiple Choice)
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A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer.Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes.A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage:
(Multiple Choice)
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