Question 1

Why are screening cells group O?

Accepted Answer

A)  To prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum 
B)  To prevent interference with A and B antigens on patient cells 
C)  Because group O cells are easier to acquire in random populations 
D)  Because group O cells contain antigens to clinically significant antibodies 
A)  To prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum 
B)  To prevent interference with A and B antigens on patient cells 
C)  Because group O cells are easier to acquire in random populations 
D)  Because group O cells contain antigens to clinically significant antibodies

Question 2

Which cells are employed to remove autoantibody from patient serum without removing any alloantibody from serum?

Accepted Answer

A)  Coombs' control red blood cells 
B)  Screening red blood cells 
C)  Patient red blood cells 
D)  Panel red blood cells 
A)  Coombs' control red blood cells 
B)  Screening red blood cells 
C)  Patient red blood cells 
D)  Panel red blood cells

Question 3

A doctor has ordered 4 units of red blood cells for a patient with anti-E in his serum. How many units would have to be screened to yield 4 E-negative units?

Accepted Answer

A)  10 
B)  15 
C)  6 
D)  12 
A)  10 
B)  15 
C)  6 
D)  12

Question 4

Routine pretransfusion testing consists of all of the following except:

Accepted Answer

A)  ABO typing. 
B)  Rh typing. 
C)  an antibody screen. 
D)  a DAT. 
A)  ABO typing. 
B)  Rh typing. 
C)  an antibody screen. 
D)  a DAT.

Question 5

How is chloroquine diphosphate used in blood banking?

Accepted Answer

A)  To accurately phenotype patient cells when IAT is positive 
B)  To enhance antigen-antibody binding in IAT 
C)  To accurately phenotype patient cells when the DAT is positive 
D)  To be used as an Rh control when DAT is positive 
A)  To accurately phenotype patient cells when IAT is positive 
B)  To enhance antigen-antibody binding in IAT 
C)  To accurately phenotype patient cells when the DAT is positive 
D)  To be used as an Rh control when DAT is positive

Question 6

In the autoabsorption procedure for the removal of cold autoagglutinins from serum, pretreatment of the patient's RBCs with which of the following reagents is helpful:

Accepted Answer

A)  Ficin 
B)  Phosphate buffered saline 
C)  LISS 
D)  Albumin 
A)  Ficin 
B)  Phosphate buffered saline 
C)  LISS 
D)  Albumin

Question 7

What effect does ZZAP reagent have on sensitized red blood cells?

Accepted Answer

A)  Removes antibody from red blood cells 
B)  Enzyme treats red blood cells 
C)  Increases adsorption capability of red blood cells 
D)  All of the above 
A)  Removes antibody from red blood cells 
B)  Enzyme treats red blood cells 
C)  Increases adsorption capability of red blood cells 
D)  All of the above

Question 8

In interpreting an antibody screen, which of the following questions might be asked to decipher the class of antibody?

Accepted Answer

A)  Is the autologous control positive or negative? 
B)  Is hemolysis present? 
C)  In what phase did the reaction occur? 
D)  Is rouleaux present? 
A)  Is the autologous control positive or negative? 
B)  Is hemolysis present? 
C)  In what phase did the reaction occur? 
D)  Is rouleaux present?

Question 9

What is the first step in reading hemagglutination reactions?

Accepted Answer

A)  Resuspension of red blood cells 
B)  Checking supernatant for hemolysis 
C)  Grading agglutination 
D)  None of the above 
A)  Resuspension of red blood cells 
B)  Checking supernatant for hemolysis 
C)  Grading agglutination 
D)  None of the above

Question 10

During an antibody ID, there was 1+ reaction at AHG with donor cells with the antigen profile Fya(+), Fyb(-). All other donor cells on the panel were negative, including those that were Fya(+), Fyb(+). Given these results, what might be the conclusion?

Accepted Answer

A)  Single antibody (showing dosage) 
B)  Probably an antibody not represented on the antigen profile 
C)  An antibody to a high-frequency antigen 
D)  IgM antibody 
A)  Single antibody (showing dosage) 
B)  Probably an antibody not represented on the antigen profile 
C)  An antibody to a high-frequency antigen 
D)  IgM antibody

Question 11

When performing the elution procedure, the solution containing the recovered antibody is called:

Accepted Answer

A)  neutralized serum. 
B)  the buffer. 
C)  the eluate. 
D)  absorbed serum. 
A)  neutralized serum. 
B)  the buffer. 
C)  the eluate. 
D)  absorbed serum.

Question 12

What is the advantage of having a 3-cell panel screen versus a 2-cell panel screen?

Accepted Answer

A)  More cells in the homozygous state that show dosage 
B)  You can narrow down the specificity of the AB better. 
C)  You might detect more rare antibodies. 
D)  All of the above 
A)  More cells in the homozygous state that show dosage 
B)  You can narrow down the specificity of the AB better. 
C)  You might detect more rare antibodies. 
D)  All of the above

Question 13

How many units would you likely have to screen to find two compatible units for someone with the following antibodies: anti-C, anti-Lea, anti-Jkb?

Accepted Answer

A)  10 
B)  15 
C)  32 
D)  35 
A)  10 
B)  15 
C)  32 
D)  35

Question 14

What is the purpose of Coombs' control cells?

Accepted Answer

A)  To ensure that AHG tests with negative results are not false-negatives 
B)  To ensure that washing removed all unbound antibody 
C)  To ensure that AHG was not omitted or inactivated 
D)  All of the above 
A)  To ensure that AHG tests with negative results are not false-negatives 
B)  To ensure that washing removed all unbound antibody 
C)  To ensure that AHG was not omitted or inactivated 
D)  All of the above

Question 15

A 2-unit crossmatch was ordered on a patient in the emergency room. The patient's antibody screen was negative. One unit was compatible and the other was incompatible at AHG. If the patient's antibody screen was negative and the donor had no history of antibodies, what could be the reason for this reaction?

Accepted Answer

A)  The patient's serum has an antibody to a low-frequency antigen not present on screening cells. 
B)  The donor has a positive DAT. 
C)  The patient's serum has an HTLA antibody. 
D)  Options A and B 
A)  The patient's serum has an antibody to a low-frequency antigen not present on screening cells. 
B)  The donor has a positive DAT. 
C)  The patient's serum has an HTLA antibody. 
D)  Options A and B

Question 16

What test is used to confirm the efficacy of chloroquine treatment?

Accepted Answer

A)  IAT 
B)  DAT 
C)  ABO grouping 
D)  Neutralization test 
A)  IAT 
B)  DAT 
C)  ABO grouping 
D)  Neutralization test

Question 17

Of the antibodies listed below, which does NOT fit with the others in terms of the optimal temperature of reactivity?

Accepted Answer

A)  Anti-P1 
B)  Anti-I 
C)  Anti-A1 
D)  Anti-E 
A)  Anti-P1 
B)  Anti-I 
C)  Anti-A1 
D)  Anti-E

Question 18

Why can't autoadsorption be performed on a patient who was transfused 1 month before?

Accepted Answer

A)  Only IgM antibody would be present at 1 month. 
B)  Donor cells might adsorb out autoantibody in serum. 
C)  Patient cells might adsorb out alloantibody in serum. 
D)  Donor cells might adsorb out alloantibody in serum. 
A)  Only IgM antibody would be present at 1 month. 
B)  Donor cells might adsorb out autoantibody in serum. 
C)  Patient cells might adsorb out alloantibody in serum. 
D)  Donor cells might adsorb out alloantibody in serum.

Question 19

Which of the following high-frequency antigens do not cause in vivo red blood cell destruction when complexed with corresponding antibody?

Accepted Answer

A)  k 
B)  Jsb 
C)  Cha 
D)  Lub 
A)  k 
B)  Jsb 
C)  Cha 
D)  Lub

Question 20

What is done with a patient's serum after an autoadsorption technique has been performed?

Accepted Answer

A)  Alloantibodies are identified. 
B)  The serum is discarded. 
C)  Autoantibody is identified. 
D)  Alloantibodies are identified, and the serum can be used for compatibility testing. 
A)  Alloantibodies are identified. 
B)  The serum is discarded. 
C)  Autoantibody is identified. 
D)  Alloantibodies are identified, and the serum can be used for compatibility testing.

Exam 10: Detection and Identification of Antibodies

Why are screening cells group O?

Which cells are employed to remove autoantibody from patient serum without removing any alloantibody from serum?

A doctor has ordered 4 units of red blood cells for a patient with anti-E in his serum. How many units would have to be screened to yield 4 E-negative units?

Routine pretransfusion testing consists of all of the following except:

How is chloroquine diphosphate used in blood banking?

In the autoabsorption procedure for the removal of cold autoagglutinins from serum, pretreatment of the patient's RBCs with which of the following reagents is helpful:

What effect does ZZAP reagent have on sensitized red blood cells?

In interpreting an antibody screen, which of the following questions might be asked to decipher the class of antibody?

What is the first step in reading hemagglutination reactions?

During an antibody ID, there was 1+ reaction at AHG with donor cells with the antigen profile Fya(+), Fyb(-). All other donor cells on the panel were negative, including those that were Fya(+), Fyb(+). Given these results, what might be the conclusion?

When performing the elution procedure, the solution containing the recovered antibody is called:

What is the advantage of having a 3-cell panel screen versus a 2-cell panel screen?

How many units would you likely have to screen to find two compatible units for someone with the following antibodies: anti-C, anti-Lea, anti-Jkb?

What is the purpose of Coombs' control cells?

What test is used to confirm the efficacy of chloroquine treatment?

Of the antibodies listed below, which does NOT fit with the others in terms of the optimal temperature of reactivity?

Why can't autoadsorption be performed on a patient who was transfused 1 month before?

Which of the following high-frequency antigens do not cause in vivo red blood cell destruction when complexed with corresponding antibody?

What is done with a patient's serum after an autoadsorption technique has been performed?

Red Blood Cells and Platelet Preservation: Historical Perspectives and Current Trends

Basic Genetics

Fundamentals of Immunology

Concepts in Molecular Biology

The Antiglobulin Test

The Abo Blood Group System

The Rh Blood Group System

Blood Group Terminology and Common Blood Groups

Uncommon Blood Groups

Pre-Transfusion Testing

Blood Bank Technologies and Automation

Donor Selection

Transfusion-Transmitted Diseases

Component Preparation

Transfusion Therapy

Adverse Effects of Blood Transfusion

Apheresis

Cellular Therapy in the Transplant Setting

Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemias

Tissue Banking As Part of the Transfusion Service

The Hla System

Relationship Testing

Quality Management

Patient Blood Management

Transfusion Safety and Federal Regulatory Requirements

Laboratory Information Systems in the Blood Bank

Medicolegal and Ethical Aspects of Providing Blood Collection and Transfusion Services

Filters

How many units would you likely have to screen to find two compatible units for someone with the following antibodies: anti-C, anti-Le^a, anti-Jk^b?