Exam 13: Bacterial Genome Replication and Expression
Exam 1: The Evolution of Microorganisms and Microbiology75 Questions
Exam 2: Microscopy69 Questions
Exam 3: Bacterial Cell Structure108 Questions
Exam 4: Archaeal Cell Structure41 Questions
Exam 5: Eukaryotic Cell Structure73 Questions
Exam 6: Viruses and Other Acellular Infectious Agents81 Questions
Exam 7: Microbial Growth111 Questions
Exam 8: Control of Microorganisms in the Environment68 Questions
Exam 9: Antimicrobial Chemotherapy70 Questions
Exam 10: Introduction to Metabolism92 Questions
Exam 11: Catabolism: Energy Release and Conservation99 Questions
Exam 12: Anabolism: the Use of Energy in Biosynthesis78 Questions
Exam 13: Bacterial Genome Replication and Expression109 Questions
Exam 14: Regulation of Bacterial Cellular Processes75 Questions
Exam 15: Eukaryotic and Archaeal Genome Replication and Expression48 Questions
Exam 16: Mechanisms of Genetic Variation111 Questions
Exam 17: Recombinant DNA Technology70 Questions
Exam 18: Microbial Genomics64 Questions
Exam 19: Microbial Taxonomy and the Evolution of Diversity57 Questions
Exam 20: Archaea60 Questions
Exam 21: The Deinococci, Mollicutes, and Nonproteobacterial Gram-Negative Bacteria79 Questions
Exam 22: The Proteobacteria85 Questions
Exam 23: Firmicutes: The Low G-C Gram-Positive Bacteria57 Questions
Exam 24: Actinobacteria: the High G-C Gram-Positive Bacteria62 Questions
Exam 25: Protists71 Questions
Exam 26: Fungi Eumycota67 Questions
Exam 27: Viruses76 Questions
Exam 28: Biogeochemical Cycling and Global Climate Change41 Questions
Exam 29: Methods in Microbial Ecology37 Questions
Exam 30: Microorganisms in Marine and Freshwater Ecosystems50 Questions
Exam 31: Microorganisms in Terrestrial Ecosystems57 Questions
Exam 32: Microbial Interactions73 Questions
Exam 33: Innate Host Resistance78 Questions
Exam 34: Adaptive Immunity98 Questions
Exam 35: Pathogenicity and Infection48 Questions
Exam 36: Clinical Microbiology and Immunology50 Questions
Exam 37: Epidemiology and Public Health Microbiology67 Questions
Exam 38: Human Diseases Caused by Viruses and Prions67 Questions
Exam 39: Human Diseases Caused by Bacteria91 Questions
Exam 40: Human Diseases Caused by Fungi and Protists76 Questions
Exam 41: Microbiology of Food61 Questions
Exam 42: Biotechnology and Industrial Microbiology42 Questions
Exam 43: Applied Environmental Microbiology44 Questions
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Which of the following is a correct comparison between RNA polymerase holoenzyme that functions in transcription and the primase enzyme that functions in DNA replication?
(Multiple Choice)
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Griffith's experiment demonstrated transformation because a mouse injected with live R and heat-killed S strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae resulted in death of the mouse and the isolation of live R as well as live S cells.Hypothesize as to the type of cells that Griffith would have observed if transformation had not occurred.
(Multiple Choice)
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Predict the experimental outcome if Hershey and Chase had used a bacterial cell instead of a bacteriophage in the procedure.
(Multiple Choice)
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A molecule of RNA has 99 phosphodiester bonds connecting ribonucleotides.
(Short Answer)
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If the product of a functional gene is not a protein,what other product(s)might be encoded by the gene?
(Multiple Choice)
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During replication,which enzyme unwinds the two strands of the DNA molecule from one another?
(Multiple Choice)
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A consensus sequence in the untranslated leader sequence of a prokaryotic mRNA,which serves as a ribosome binding site is called the _____ - _____ sequence.
(Short Answer)
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A complex consisting of a single mRNA molecule with several ribosomes is called a
(Multiple Choice)
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In the Hershey and Chase experiment,how did labeling DNA and protein with different radioactive isotopes demonstrate that DNA,rather than protein,carried the genetic information in the T2 virus?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following nitrogenous bases is usually found in RNA but not in DNA?
(Multiple Choice)
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During transcription elongation,how many pyrophosphate molecules are produced from the incorporation of 20 ribonucleoside monophosphates?
(Multiple Choice)
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The stop codons are translated codons; that is,they specify amino acids to be inserted into the last position of a growing polypeptide chain.
(True/False)
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During DNA replication,deoxyribonucleosides are added to the 5' end of Okazaki fragments and to the 3' end of the leading strand.
(True/False)
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The genetic code is translated in groups of __________ bases.
(Multiple Choice)
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The molecular weights of a nucleic acid and an amino acid are approximately the same.
(True/False)
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How many phosphodiester bonds are needed to join 50 deoxyribonucleotides in a DNA strand?
(Multiple Choice)
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