Exam 16: Aggregate Planning and Master Scheduling
Exam 1: Introduction to Operations Management74 Questions
Exam 2: Competitiveness70 Questions
Exam 3: Forecasting139 Questions
Exam 4: Product and Service Design78 Questions
Exam 4: RELIABILITY – Static12 Questions
Exam 6: Strategic Capacity Planning for Products and Services85 Questions
Exam 7: Decision Theory– Static114 Questions
Exam 8: Process Selection and Facility Layout132 Questions
Exam 9: Work Design and Measurement129 Questions
Exam 10: learning curve– Static61 Questions
Exam 11: Location Planning and Analysis62 Questions
Exam 12: The Transportation Model– Static20 Questions
Exam 13: Management of Quality97 Questions
Exam 14: Quality Control112 Questions
Exam 15: Acceptance Sampling– Static51 Questions
Exam 16: Aggregate Planning and Master Scheduling74 Questions
Exam 17: MRP and ERP81 Questions
Exam 18: Inventory Management128 Questions
Exam 19: JIT and Lean Operations79 Questions
Exam 20: Maintenance– Static36 Questions
Exam 21: Supply Chain Management87 Questions
Exam 22: Scheduling98 Questions
Exam 23: Project Management113 Questions
Exam 24: Management of Waiting Lines64 Questions
Exam 25: Linear Programming93 Questions
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The assignment of work to specific machines and people are examples of aggregate planning.
(True/False)
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Using variable pricing in response to demand variability to maximize revenue using perishable capacity is known as:
(Multiple Choice)
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Master schedulers are employed primarily by service organizations.
(True/False)
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Information for firm ABC: Inventory at the end of April, 2008: 200 units Expected demand during April, 2008: 50 units Production expected during April, 2008: 100 units
What was the inventory at the end of March 2008?
(Multiple Choice)
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One thing that makes aggregate planning in services easier than aggregate planning in manufacturing is:
(Multiple Choice)
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The use of tables and charts in aggregate planning usually enables planners to arrive at an optimal plan.
(True/False)
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A company's disaggregation plan calls for the aggregate production to be broken down into 40 percent Product A, 40 percent Product B, and 20 percent Product C. The aggregate plan calls for total production that averages 1,100 units per quarter. Quarter 1 production will be 800 units, quarter 2 production will be 1,400 units, and quarter 3 production will be 1,200 units. How many units of Product A will be produced in quarter 4?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is not a basic option for altering the availability of capacity in a service environment?
(Multiple Choice)
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Aggregate planning is capacity planning that typically covers a time horizon of one to three months.
(True/False)
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Proactive and reactive aggregate planning strategies are best associated with:
(Multiple Choice)
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The direct result of disaggregating the aggregate plan is the:
(Multiple Choice)
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Aggregate planners are concerned with the quality and quantity of expected demand.
(True/False)
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In using the chase strategy, variations in demand could be met by:
(Multiple Choice)
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A firm has 43 units of a certain product on hand. Forecasts for the first two planning periods are 20 units each. A production quantity of 80 units is planned to be available in period 3. Customer orders are 22 for period 1 and 17 for period 2.What quantity is available for commitment to new customers in either of the first two periods?
(Multiple Choice)
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The master schedule indicates the quantity and timing for delivery of a product, but not the dates production will need to start.
(True/False)
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A firm has 56 units of product X on hand. Forecasts of demand are for 20 units per week. An MPS quantity of 100 units is planned to arrive in period 3. Customer orders are 24 for period 1, 18 for period 2, and 15 for period 3.
What is the projected on-hand inventory at the end of period 2?
(Multiple Choice)
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The main disadvantage(s) of informal techniques used for aggregate planning is(are):
(Multiple Choice)
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