Question 1

A conscientious clinician will usually limit a prescription for ED drugs to which of the following?

Accepted Answer

A) 4 to 10 tablets per month 
B) 30 tablets 
C) 90 tablets 
D) 6-month supply 
A) 4 to 10 tablets per month 
B) 30 tablets 
C) 90 tablets 
D) 6-month supply A

Question 2

What is the role of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)in erectile function?

Accepted Answer

A) Activates a specific protein kinase,leading to smooth muscle relaxation 
B) Causes release of vasoconstrictor substances 
C) Causes release of androgens from adrenals 
D) Activates enzymes,which convert estrogen into testosterone 
A) Activates a specific protein kinase,leading to smooth muscle relaxation 
B) Causes release of vasoconstrictor substances 
C) Causes release of androgens from adrenals 
D) Activates enzymes,which convert estrogen into testosterone A

Question 3

Patients using minoxidil (Rogaine)for hair regrowth will find that it takes how long to see any significant improvement?

Accepted Answer

A) 1 to 2 weeks 
B) 1 month 
C) 2 to 3 months 
D) 6 months to 1 year 
A) 1 to 2 weeks 
B) 1 month 
C) 2 to 3 months 
D) 6 months to 1 year C

Question 4

For the past 30 years,the FDA has approved six drugs for the treatment of BPH.Which class relaxes smooth muscles in the prostate gland?

Accepted Answer

A) Alpha blockers 
B) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors. 
C) Calcium channel blockers 
D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors 
A) Alpha blockers 
B) 5-alpha reductase inhibitors. 
C) Calcium channel blockers 
D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

Question 5

The primary cause of male hypogonadism is:

Accepted Answer

A) Aging. 
B) Genetic defects. 
C) Pituitary disease. 
D) Hypothalamic failure. 
E) Thyroid disease. 
A) Aging. 
B) Genetic defects. 
C) Pituitary disease. 
D) Hypothalamic failure. 
E) Thyroid disease.

Question 6

The presence of food most significantly inhibits the absorption of which PDE5 inhibitor?

Accepted Answer

A) sildenafil (Viagra) 
B) tadalafil (Cialis) 
C) vardenafil (Levitra) 
D) alprostadil (Muse) 
A) sildenafil (Viagra) 
B) tadalafil (Cialis) 
C) vardenafil (Levitra) 
D) alprostadil (Muse)

Question 7

For men ages 14 to 35 years who develop epididymitis,the most likely cause is:

Accepted Answer

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis. 
B) Escherichia coli. 
C) Enterococcus faecalis. 
D) Proteus vulgaris. 
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis. 
B) Escherichia coli. 
C) Enterococcus faecalis. 
D) Proteus vulgaris.

Question 8

Which of the following statements regarding neuronal response in the initiation of an erection is true?

Accepted Answer

A) It is a primarily parasympathetic response. 
B) It is a sympathetic response. 
C) It is not important in initiation of erection. 
D) It is a serotonergic response that initiates erections. 
A) It is a primarily parasympathetic response. 
B) It is a sympathetic response. 
C) It is not important in initiation of erection. 
D) It is a serotonergic response that initiates erections.

Question 9

Acute bacterial prostatitis should be treated with antibiotics for how long?

Accepted Answer

A) 7 days 
B) 14 days 
C) 30 days 
D) 12 weeks 
A) 7 days 
B) 14 days 
C) 30 days 
D) 12 weeks

Question 10

Which of the following statements regarding phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5)inhibitors and treatment of ED is true?

Accepted Answer

A) Priapism is more common with oral PDE5 inhibitors than alprostadil. 
B) Insurance companies will pay for daily use of PDE5 inhibitors. 
C) When patients do not respond to PDE5 inhibitors due to cord injury or innervations damage,alprostadil (Caverject)can be used. 
D) Nitrates are safe to take with PDE5 inhibitors. 
A) Priapism is more common with oral PDE5 inhibitors than alprostadil. 
B) Insurance companies will pay for daily use of PDE5 inhibitors. 
C) When patients do not respond to PDE5 inhibitors due to cord injury or innervations damage,alprostadil (Caverject)can be used. 
D) Nitrates are safe to take with PDE5 inhibitors.

Question 11

More than one-half of all men who seek medications for ED have which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

A) Acne 
B) Diabetes 
C) Hair loss 
D) Depression 
A) Acne 
B) Diabetes 
C) Hair loss 
D) Depression

Question 12

Which of the following statements regarding BPH treatment with alpha-one blockers is false?

Accepted Answer

A) Alpha-one blockers should result in a relatively rapid (1-month)response. 
B) Alpha blockers relax smooth muscles in the prostate gland. 
C) Alpha-one blockers can lower blood pressure. 
D) Alpha-one blockers can shrink the size of the prostate. 
A) Alpha-one blockers should result in a relatively rapid (1-month)response. 
B) Alpha blockers relax smooth muscles in the prostate gland. 
C) Alpha-one blockers can lower blood pressure. 
D) Alpha-one blockers can shrink the size of the prostate.

Question 13

Which of the following statements regarding testosterone therapy is true?

Accepted Answer

A) Testosterone can decrease red blood cell mass and cause anemia.Hematocrit must be monitored. 
B) Testosterone should be offered to aging men to improve libido and declining muscle strength and mass. 
C) Testosterone replacement therapy has been conclusively identified as a cause of prostate cancer. 
D) Urinalysis and digital rectal examinations should be performed regularly in patients taking testosterone. 
A) Testosterone can decrease red blood cell mass and cause anemia.Hematocrit must be monitored. 
B) Testosterone should be offered to aging men to improve libido and declining muscle strength and mass. 
C) Testosterone replacement therapy has been conclusively identified as a cause of prostate cancer. 
D) Urinalysis and digital rectal examinations should be performed regularly in patients taking testosterone.

Question 14

All of the following are nonselective alpha-one blockers except:

Accepted Answer

A) doxazosin (Cardura) 
B) prazosin (Minipress) 
C) terazosin (Hytrin) 
D) tamsulosin (Flomax) 
A) doxazosin (Cardura) 
B) prazosin (Minipress) 
C) terazosin (Hytrin) 
D) tamsulosin (Flomax)

Question 15

Which of the following PDE5 inhibitors is approved at a low dose for daily use?

Accepted Answer

A) sildenafil (Viagra) 
B) tadalafil (Cialis) 
C) vardenafil (Levitra) 
D) alprostadil (Muse) 
A) sildenafil (Viagra) 
B) tadalafil (Cialis) 
C) vardenafil (Levitra) 
D) alprostadil (Muse)

Question 16

The most common adverse effect of PGE1 (Caverject)is:

Accepted Answer

A) Penile pain or discomfort. 
B) Diarrhea. 
C) Visual and hearing deficits. 
D) Hypotension. 
A) Penile pain or discomfort. 
B) Diarrhea. 
C) Visual and hearing deficits. 
D) Hypotension.

Question 17

In general,there are few,if any,side effects with the use of ED drugs,but two notable exceptions are:

Accepted Answer

A) Constipation and abdominal pain 
B) Rash and diarrhea 
C) Headache and facial flushing 
D) Diarrhea and abdominal pain 
A) Constipation and abdominal pain 
B) Rash and diarrhea 
C) Headache and facial flushing 
D) Diarrhea and abdominal pain

Question 18

The most common cause of vasculogenic ED is:

Accepted Answer

A) Atherosclerosis 
B) Venous anatomical abnormalities 
C) Low testosterone 
D) Prostate disease 
E) Coagulopathy 
A) Atherosclerosis 
B) Venous anatomical abnormalities 
C) Low testosterone 
D) Prostate disease 
E) Coagulopathy

Question 19

Which of the following should a physician assume,if present,will aggravate symptoms of BPH?

Accepted Answer

A) Any other medication 
B) Diabetes mellitus 
C) Hypertension 
D) Congestive heart failure 
E) All of the above 
A) Any other medication 
B) Diabetes mellitus 
C) Hypertension 
D) Congestive heart failure 
E) All of the above

Question 20

If a patient is taking a calcium channel blocker,such as amlodipine,for hypertension and is also given a PDE5 agent,such as tadalafil (Cialis),for ED,which of the following effects may occur?

Accepted Answer

A) A small additive drop in blood pressure 
B) A small increase in blood pressure 
C) Exaggeration of glaucoma symptoms 
D) Increased chance of urticaria 
A) A small additive drop in blood pressure 
B) A small increase in blood pressure 
C) Exaggeration of glaucoma symptoms 
D) Increased chance of urticaria

Exam 21: Drugs Used to Affect Mens Health

A conscientious clinician will usually limit a prescription for ED drugs to which of the following?

What is the role of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)in erectile function?

Patients using minoxidil (Rogaine)for hair regrowth will find that it takes how long to see any significant improvement?

For the past 30 years,the FDA has approved six drugs for the treatment of BPH.Which class relaxes smooth muscles in the prostate gland?

The primary cause of male hypogonadism is:

The presence of food most significantly inhibits the absorption of which PDE5 inhibitor?

For men ages 14 to 35 years who develop epididymitis,the most likely cause is:

Which of the following statements regarding neuronal response in the initiation of an erection is true?

Acute bacterial prostatitis should be treated with antibiotics for how long?

Which of the following statements regarding phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5)inhibitors and treatment of ED is true?

More than one-half of all men who seek medications for ED have which of the following conditions?

Which of the following statements regarding BPH treatment with alpha-one blockers is false?

Which of the following statements regarding testosterone therapy is true?

All of the following are nonselective alpha-one blockers except:

Which of the following PDE5 inhibitors is approved at a low dose for daily use?

The most common adverse effect of PGE1 (Caverject)is:

In general,there are few,if any,side effects with the use of ED drugs,but two notable exceptions are:

The most common cause of vasculogenic ED is:

Which of the following should a physician assume,if present,will aggravate symptoms of BPH?

If a patient is taking a calcium channel blocker,such as amlodipine,for hypertension and is also given a PDE5 agent,such as tadalafil (Cialis),for ED,which of the following effects may occur?

Conscientious and Rational Prescribing in the 21st Century

An Introduction to Pharmacodynamics and Pharmacokinetics

Communicating With Patients About Medications: a Patient-Centered Approach

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Bone and Joint Disorders

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Eye and Ear Disorders

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disorders

Drugs Used to Regulate Blood Pressure

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Hyperlipidemias

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Blood Disorders

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Pulmonary Diseases and Disorders

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Common Disorders of the Gastrointestinal System

Drugs Used to Treat Endocrine Gland Disorders

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus

Drugs Used to Treat Common Neurological Conditions

Practical Pharmacotherapy of Drugs Used to Treat Psychiatric Disorders

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Skin Disorders

Modern Approaches to Managing Bacterial Infections

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Nonbacterial Infections

Drugs Used in the Treatment of Neoplasms

Drugs Used to Affect Womens Health

Prescribing for the Geriatric Patient

Prescribing for the Pediatric Patient

Drugs Used to Manage Pain

The Integrative Medicine Pharmacopoeia: Herbals, vitamins, and Dietary Supplements

Agents Used to Manipulate the Immune Response

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