Question 1

Why is it important to match the lot number on the panel sheet with the lot number on the panel cells?

Accepted Answer

A)  The ABO group will change from lot to lot. 
B)  Pattern of reactions will change from lot to lot. 
C)  It is a requirement of the FDA. 
D)  All of the above 
A)  The ABO group will change from lot to lot. 
B)  Pattern of reactions will change from lot to lot. 
C)  It is a requirement of the FDA. 
D)  All of the above

Question 2

What is a positive DAT?

Accepted Answer

A)  In vitro sensitization of RBC with antigen 
B)  In vitro sensitization of RBC with antibody 
C)  In vivo sensitization of RBC with antibody 
D)  In vivo sensitization of RBC with antigen 
A)  In vitro sensitization of RBC with antigen 
B)  In vitro sensitization of RBC with antibody 
C)  In vivo sensitization of RBC with antibody 
D)  In vivo sensitization of RBC with antigen

Question 3

What is done with a patient's serum after an autoadsorption technique has been performed?

Accepted Answer

A)  Alloantibodies are identified. 
B)  The serum is discarded. 
C)  Autoantibody is identified. 
D)  Alloantibodies are identified, and the serum can be used for compatibility testing. 
A)  Alloantibodies are identified. 
B)  The serum is discarded. 
C)  Autoantibody is identified. 
D)  Alloantibodies are identified, and the serum can be used for compatibility testing.

Question 4

What can be concluded in a patient who has anti-K identified in his serum but phenotypes positive for K antigen?

Accepted Answer

A)  Kell antiserum was omitted 
B)  Patient was recently transfused with K-positive blood 
C)  Anti-K was misidentified 
D)  Patient was recently transfused with K-positive blood and Anti-K was misidentified 
A)  Kell antiserum was omitted 
B)  Patient was recently transfused with K-positive blood 
C)  Anti-K was misidentified 
D)  Patient was recently transfused with K-positive blood and Anti-K was misidentified

Question 5

Which of the following high-frequency antigens do not cause in vivo red blood cell destruction when complexed with corresponding antibody?

Accepted Answer

A)  k 
B)  Jsb 
C)  Cha 
D)  Lub 
A)  k 
B)  Jsb 
C)  Cha 
D)  Lub

Question 6

Name a disease in which your positive D control might be positive.

Accepted Answer

A)  PCH 
B)  Multiple myeloma 
C)  Huntington's disease 
D)  Epstein-Barr virus 
A)  PCH 
B)  Multiple myeloma 
C)  Huntington's disease 
D)  Epstein-Barr virus

Question 7

What is tested in an antibody screen?

Accepted Answer

A)  Patient red blood cells are tested against group O reagent screening cells. 
B)  Patient serum is tested against group AB reagent screening cells. 
C)  Patient serum is tested against group O reagent screening cells. 
D)  Patient serum is tested against group A reagent screening cells. 
A)  Patient red blood cells are tested against group O reagent screening cells. 
B)  Patient serum is tested against group AB reagent screening cells. 
C)  Patient serum is tested against group O reagent screening cells. 
D)  Patient serum is tested against group A reagent screening cells.

Question 8

What is the final step in antibody identification?

Accepted Answer

A)  Phenotype donor's RBC units for corresponding antigen 
B)  Phenotype patient's RBCs for corresponding antibody 
C)  Phenotype patient's RBCs for corresponding antigen 
D)  Phenotype RBC units for corresponding antibody 
A)  Phenotype donor's RBC units for corresponding antigen 
B)  Phenotype patient's RBCs for corresponding antibody 
C)  Phenotype patient's RBCs for corresponding antigen 
D)  Phenotype RBC units for corresponding antibody

Question 9

How does LISS enhance antibody detection in the antibody screen?

Accepted Answer

A)  Increases the incubation times, which increases the sensitivity of the test 
B)  Increases the zeta potential, promoting agglutination of sensitized red blood cells 
C)  Increases the rate at which antibody binds to red blood cell antigens 
D)  None of the above 
A)  Increases the incubation times, which increases the sensitivity of the test 
B)  Increases the zeta potential, promoting agglutination of sensitized red blood cells 
C)  Increases the rate at which antibody binds to red blood cell antigens 
D)  None of the above

Question 10

In the autoabsorption procedure for the removal of cold autoagglutinins from serum, pre-treatment of the patient's RBCs with which of the following reagents is helpful:

Accepted Answer

A)  Ficin 
B)  Phosphate buffered saline 
C)  LISS 
D)  Albumin 
A)  Ficin 
B)  Phosphate buffered saline 
C)  LISS 
D)  Albumin

Question 11

All of the following antigens are interacted by proteolytic enzymes except:

Accepted Answer

A)  C. 
B)  Fya. 
C)  M. 
D)  S. 
A)  C. 
B)  Fya. 
C)  M. 
D)  S.

Question 12

What test must be performed on a patient with a warm autoantibody in their serum before transfusing?

Accepted Answer

A)  Prewarming 
B)  Warm autoadsorption 
C)  Elution 
D)  DAT 
A)  Prewarming 
B)  Warm autoadsorption 
C)  Elution 
D)  DAT

Question 13

Why can't autoadsorption be performed on a patient who was transfused 1 month before?

Accepted Answer

A)  Only IgM antibody would be present at 1 month 
B)  Donor cells might adsorb out autoantibody in serum 
C)  Patient cells might adsorb out alloantibody in serum 
D)  Donor cells might adsorb out alloantibody in serum 
A)  Only IgM antibody would be present at 1 month 
B)  Donor cells might adsorb out autoantibody in serum 
C)  Patient cells might adsorb out alloantibody in serum 
D)  Donor cells might adsorb out alloantibody in serum

Question 14

What does a panel of reagent red blood cells consist of?

Accepted Answer

A)  1 to 5 group O red blood cell suspensions 
B)  3-vial screening cells 
C)  11 to 20 group O red blood cell suspensions 
D)  Pooled screening cells 
A)  1 to 5 group O red blood cell suspensions 
B)  3-vial screening cells 
C)  11 to 20 group O red blood cell suspensions 
D)  Pooled screening cells

Question 15

What is an elution?

Accepted Answer

A)  A technique used to dissociate IgM antibodies from sensitized RBCs 
B)  A technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs 
C)  A technique used to reduce the zeta potential enhancing antigen binding 
D)  None of the above 
A)  A technique used to dissociate IgM antibodies from sensitized RBCs 
B)  A technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs 
C)  A technique used to reduce the zeta potential enhancing antigen binding 
D)  None of the above

Question 16

Why might some blood banking facilities prefer the use of monospecific IgG over polyspecifiic antihuman globulin (AHG) in their antibody screens?

Accepted Answer

A)  Interference from naturally occurring warm antibodies in patient serum is reduced. 
B)  Interference from naturally occurring cold antibodies in patient serum is reduced. 
C)  There is more IgG in monospecific antisera than in polyspecific reagents. 
D)  Monospecific IgG has been standardized. 
A)  Interference from naturally occurring warm antibodies in patient serum is reduced. 
B)  Interference from naturally occurring cold antibodies in patient serum is reduced. 
C)  There is more IgG in monospecific antisera than in polyspecific reagents. 
D)  Monospecific IgG has been standardized.

Question 17

What screening cells are used primarily for testing donor units for unexpected antibodies?

Accepted Answer

A)  Pooled 
B)  2-vial 
C)  3-vial 
D)  4-vial 
A)  Pooled 
B)  2-vial 
C)  3-vial 
D)  4-vial

Question 18

In which scenario can an antibody be ruled out?

Accepted Answer

A)  Patient serum does not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen 
B)  Patient serum does react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen 
C)  Patient cells do not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antibody 
D)  Patient cells do react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antibody 
A)  Patient serum does not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen 
B)  Patient serum does react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen 
C)  Patient cells do not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antibody 
D)  Patient cells do react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antibody

Question 19

Tests with which AHG reagents can determine if IgG, complement, or both are coating red blood cells?

Accepted Answer

A)  Monospecific 
B)  Polyspecific 
C)  Standardized 
D)  Irradiated 
A)  Monospecific 
B)  Polyspecific 
C)  Standardized 
D)  Irradiated

Question 20

Which of the following is known as the "sensitization phase" in the antibody screen?

Accepted Answer

A)  Immediate spin 
B)  AHG 
C)  37°C incubation 
D)  None of the above 
A)  Immediate spin 
B)  AHG 
C)  37°C incubation 
D)  None of the above

Exam 9: Detection and Identification of Antibodies

Why is it important to match the lot number on the panel sheet with the lot number on the panel cells?

What is a positive DAT?

What is done with a patient's serum after an autoadsorption technique has been performed?

What can be concluded in a patient who has anti-K identified in his serum but phenotypes positive for K antigen?

Which of the following high-frequency antigens do not cause in vivo red blood cell destruction when complexed with corresponding antibody?

Name a disease in which your positive D control might be positive.

What is tested in an antibody screen?

What is the final step in antibody identification?

How does LISS enhance antibody detection in the antibody screen?

In the autoabsorption procedure for the removal of cold autoagglutinins from serum, pre-treatment of the patient's RBCs with which of the following reagents is helpful:

All of the following antigens are interacted by proteolytic enzymes except:

What test must be performed on a patient with a warm autoantibody in their serum before transfusing?

Why can't autoadsorption be performed on a patient who was transfused 1 month before?

What does a panel of reagent red blood cells consist of?

What is an elution?

Why might some blood banking facilities prefer the use of monospecific IgG over polyspecifiic antihuman globulin (AHG) in their antibody screens?

What screening cells are used primarily for testing donor units for unexpected antibodies?

In which scenario can an antibody be ruled out?

Tests with which AHG reagents can determine if IgG, complement, or both are coating red blood cells?

Which of the following is known as the "sensitization phase" in the antibody screen?

Red Blood Cells and Platelet Preservation: Historical Perspectives and Current Trends

Basic Genetics

Fundamentals of Immunology

Concepts in Molecular Biology

The Antiglobulin Test

The Abo Blood Group System

The RH Blood Group System

Blood Group Terminology and the Other Blood Groups

Pre-Transfusion Testing

Overview of the Routine Blood Bank Laboratory

Other Technologies and Automation

Donor Screening and Component Preparation

Apheresis

Transfusion Therapy

Cellular Therapy

Transfusion-Transmitted Diseases

Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemias

The Hla System

Relationship Testing

Quality Management

Transfusion Safety and Federal Regulatory Requirements

Utilization Management

Laboratory Information Systems

Medicolegal and Ethical Aspects of Providing Blood Collection and Transfusion Services

Tissue Banking: A New Role for the Transfusion Service

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