Question 1

Which of the following is not true of monoclonal reagents?

Accepted Answer

A)  Monoclonal reagents are produced for single antigens with more than one epitope. 
B)  Monoclonal reagents are highly specific. 
C)  Monoclonal reagents are highly characterized and are uniformly reactive. 
D)  Monoclonal reagents are produced by hybridoma technology. 
A)  Monoclonal reagents are produced for single antigens with more than one epitope. 
B)  Monoclonal reagents are highly specific. 
C)  Monoclonal reagents are highly characterized and are uniformly reactive. 
D)  Monoclonal reagents are produced by hybridoma technology.

Question 2

What happens to the target cell after the cytokine has bound?

Accepted Answer

A)  The contents of the cell are expelled. 
B)  The target cell is programmed to produce biological responses. 
C)  The host exhibits a hypersensitivity reaction. 
D)  ABO antigens are stripped from the membrane. 
A)  The contents of the cell are expelled. 
B)  The target cell is programmed to produce biological responses. 
C)  The host exhibits a hypersensitivity reaction. 
D)  ABO antigens are stripped from the membrane.

Question 3

Which of the following corresponds to the basic structure of immunoglobulin?

Accepted Answer

A)  Two light chains held together with an interlink disulfide bond 
B)  Two heavy chains held together with an interlink disulfide bond 
C)  One light chain and one heavy chain held together by covalent disulfide bonds 
D)  Two light chains and two heavy chains held together by covalent disulfide bonds 
A)  Two light chains held together with an interlink disulfide bond 
B)  Two heavy chains held together with an interlink disulfide bond 
C)  One light chain and one heavy chain held together by covalent disulfide bonds 
D)  Two light chains and two heavy chains held together by covalent disulfide bonds

Question 4

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally?

Accepted Answer

A)  22°C 
B)  37°C 
C)  56°C 
D)  4°C 
A)  22°C 
B)  37°C 
C)  56°C 
D)  4°C

Question 5

When there is an excess of antigen in a serologic test system, what course of action should be followed?

Accepted Answer

A)  Dilute the serum 
B)  Add complement 
C)  Decrease the serum-to-cell ratio 
D)  Increase the serum-to-cell ratio 
A)  Dilute the serum 
B)  Add complement 
C)  Decrease the serum-to-cell ratio 
D)  Increase the serum-to-cell ratio

Question 6

Which of the following statements is not true?

Accepted Answer

A)  T-cell receptors do not recognize foreign antigen on their own like B cells do. 
B)  Major histocompatibility complex (MH
C)  molecules are cell membrane proteins. 
C)  MHC molecules are required for T cells to recognize foreign antigens. 
D)  MHC molecules are required for B cells to recognize foreign antigens. 
A)  T-cell receptors do not recognize foreign antigen on their own like B cells do. 
B)  Major histocompatibility complex (MH
C)  molecules are cell membrane proteins. 
C)  MHC molecules are required for T cells to recognize foreign antigens. 
D)  MHC molecules are required for B cells to recognize foreign antigens.

Question 7

All of the following techniques are used in the laboratory to detect blood group antigens or antibodies except:

Accepted Answer

A)  agglutination. 
B)  precipitation. 
C)  ELISA. 
D)  hemolysis. 
A)  agglutination. 
B)  precipitation. 
C)  ELISA. 
D)  hemolysis.

Question 8

At what age do infants begin to produce their own antibodies?

Accepted Answer

A)  1 week 
B)  2 months 
C)  6 months 
D)  1 year 
A)  1 week 
B)  2 months 
C)  6 months 
D)  1 year

Question 9

Why is EDTA not conducive to complement activation?

Accepted Answer

A)  Antigens are destroyed 
B)  Antibodies are neutralized 
C)  Calcium is inactivated 
D)  It dilutes plasma 
A)  Antigens are destroyed 
B)  Antibodies are neutralized 
C)  Calcium is inactivated 
D)  It dilutes plasma

Question 10

An agglutination inhibition test is performed on a person whose blood type is A+. The person's saliva is mixed with type A antisera. After incubation, the solution is mixed with reagent A cells and no agglutination occurs. What can be deduced from this finding?

Accepted Answer

A)  The person is a non-secretor of A substance. 
B)  The person is a non-secretor of O substance. 
C)  The person is a secretor of A substance. 
D)  The person is a secretor of O substance. 
A)  The person is a non-secretor of A substance. 
B)  The person is a non-secretor of O substance. 
C)  The person is a secretor of A substance. 
D)  The person is a secretor of O substance.

Question 11

Which of the following statements concerning the structure of immunoglobulins is false?

Accepted Answer

A)  The enzyme papain splits the antibody molecule at the hinge region to give three fragments (2 Fab + 1F
C) . 
B)  The FC portion is responsible for complement fixation, monocyte binding, and placental transfer. 
C)  IgM participates in placental transfer. 
D)  The Fab portion is the region responsible for antigen binding. 
A)  The enzyme papain splits the antibody molecule at the hinge region to give three fragments (2 Fab + 1F
C) . 
B)  The FC portion is responsible for complement fixation, monocyte binding, and placental transfer. 
C)  IgM participates in placental transfer. 
D)  The Fab portion is the region responsible for antigen binding.

Question 12

What is the function of mononuclear phagocytes?

Accepted Answer

A)  They present processed antigen to lymphocytes. 
B)  They present processed antibody to lymphocytes. 
C)  They release histamine. 
D)  They produce antibodies. 
A)  They present processed antigen to lymphocytes. 
B)  They present processed antibody to lymphocytes. 
C)  They release histamine. 
D)  They produce antibodies.

Question 13

All of the following are true regarding IgM antibodies except:

Accepted Answer

A)  IgM antibodies form against Kell. 
B)  IgM can bind to up to 10 antigens on a red cell. 
C)  IgM is 160 Å larger than IgG. 
D)  IgM is a pentamer. 
A)  IgM antibodies form against Kell. 
B)  IgM can bind to up to 10 antigens on a red cell. 
C)  IgM is 160 Å larger than IgG. 
D)  IgM is a pentamer.

Question 14

What does the term zeta potential mean?

Accepted Answer

A)  The ability of antigen to react with antibody 
B)  The attraction of positive charges on the red blood cell surface to negative charges in an ionic cloud 
C)  The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud 
D)  The repulsion between red blood cells caused by noncovalent forces 
A)  The ability of antigen to react with antibody 
B)  The attraction of positive charges on the red blood cell surface to negative charges in an ionic cloud 
C)  The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud 
D)  The repulsion between red blood cells caused by noncovalent forces

Question 15

The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that determines class is the:

Accepted Answer

A)  light chain. 
B)  kappa chain. 
C)  lambda chain. 
D)  heavy chain. 
A)  light chain. 
B)  kappa chain. 
C)  lambda chain. 
D)  heavy chain.

Question 16

What cells are responsible for mounting a secondary response when exposure to the same antigen occurs?

Accepted Answer

A)  Memory T/B cells 
B)  Neutrophils 
C)  Plasma cells 
D)  Myeloblasts 
A)  Memory T/B cells 
B)  Neutrophils 
C)  Plasma cells 
D)  Myeloblasts

Question 17

What substances are responsible for the activation of the alternate complement pathway?

Accepted Answer

A)  Enzymes 
B)  Polysaccharides 
C)  Proteins 
D)  All of the above 
A)  Enzymes 
B)  Polysaccharides 
C)  Proteins 
D)  All of the above

Question 18

What is the purpose of the antihuman globulin (AHG) test in blood banking?

Accepted Answer

A)  It detects red blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells. 
B)  It detects white blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells. 
C)  It detects red blood cells coated with antigen. 
D)  All of the above 
A)  It detects red blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells. 
B)  It detects white blood cells coated with antibody by bridging the gap between red blood cells. 
C)  It detects red blood cells coated with antigen. 
D)  All of the above

Question 19

What MHC Class encodes complement components?

Accepted Answer

A)  Class I 
B)  Class II 
C)  Class III 
D)  All of the above 
A)  Class I 
B)  Class II 
C)  Class III 
D)  All of the above

Question 20

At what temperature do IgM antibodies react?

Accepted Answer

A)  22°C 
B)  37°C 
C)  56°C 
D)  42°C 
A)  22°C 
B)  37°C 
C)  56°C 
D)  42°C

Exam 3: Fundamentals of Immunology

Which of the following is not true of monoclonal reagents?

What happens to the target cell after the cytokine has bound?

Which of the following corresponds to the basic structure of immunoglobulin?

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally?

When there is an excess of antigen in a serologic test system, what course of action should be followed?

Which of the following statements is not true?

All of the following techniques are used in the laboratory to detect blood group antigens or antibodies except:

At what age do infants begin to produce their own antibodies?

Why is EDTA not conducive to complement activation?

An agglutination inhibition test is performed on a person whose blood type is A+. The person's saliva is mixed with type A antisera. After incubation, the solution is mixed with reagent A cells and no agglutination occurs. What can be deduced from this finding?

Which of the following statements concerning the structure of immunoglobulins is false?

What is the function of mononuclear phagocytes?

All of the following are true regarding IgM antibodies except:

What does the term zeta potential mean?

The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that determines class is the:

What cells are responsible for mounting a secondary response when exposure to the same antigen occurs?

What substances are responsible for the activation of the alternate complement pathway?

What is the purpose of the antihuman globulin (AHG) test in blood banking?

What MHC Class encodes complement components?

At what temperature do IgM antibodies react?

Red Blood Cells and Platelet Preservation: Historical Perspectives and Current Trends

Basic Genetics

Concepts in Molecular Biology

The Antiglobulin Test

The Abo Blood Group System

The RH Blood Group System

Blood Group Terminology and the Other Blood Groups

Detection and Identification of Antibodies

Pre-Transfusion Testing

Overview of the Routine Blood Bank Laboratory

Other Technologies and Automation

Donor Screening and Component Preparation

Apheresis

Transfusion Therapy

Cellular Therapy

Transfusion-Transmitted Diseases

Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemias

The Hla System

Relationship Testing

Quality Management

Transfusion Safety and Federal Regulatory Requirements

Utilization Management

Laboratory Information Systems

Medicolegal and Ethical Aspects of Providing Blood Collection and Transfusion Services

Tissue Banking: A New Role for the Transfusion Service

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