Question 1

When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

Accepted Answer

A)  When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta 
B)  When an interface fails the delta claims the priority 
C)  When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority 
D)  When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over 
A)  When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta 
B)  When an interface fails the delta claims the priority 
C)  When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority 
D)  When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over

Question 2

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

Accepted Answer

A)  Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority. 
B)  Sent to the Security Administrator. 
C)  Stored on the Security Management Server. 
D)  Stored on the Certificate Revocation List. 
A)  Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority. 
B)  Sent to the Security Administrator. 
C)  Stored on the Security Management Server. 
D)  Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

Question 3

Where would an administrator enable Implied Rules logging?

Accepted Answer

A)  In Smart Log Rules View 
B)  In SmartDashboard on each rule 
C)  In Global Properties under Firewall 
D)  In Global Properties under log and alert 
A)  In Smart Log Rules View 
B)  In SmartDashboard on each rule 
C)  In Global Properties under Firewall 
D)  In Global Properties under log and alert

Question 4

You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

Accepted Answer

A)  backup 
B)  logswitch 
C)  Database Revision 
D)  snapshot 
A)  backup 
B)  logswitch 
C)  Database Revision 
D)  snapshot

Question 5

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

Accepted Answer

A)  Internal Certificate Authority 
B)  Token 
C)  One-time Password 
D)  Certificate 
A)  Internal Certificate Authority 
B)  Token 
C)  One-time Password 
D)  Certificate

Question 6

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators?

Accepted Answer

A)  Publish or discard the session. 
B)  Revert the session. 
C)  Save and install the Policy. 
D)  Delete older versions of database. 
A)  Publish or discard the session. 
B)  Revert the session. 
C)  Save and install the Policy. 
D)  Delete older versions of database.

Question 7

Choose what BEST describes a Session.

Accepted Answer

A)  Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole. 
B)  Starts when an Administrator logs in to the Security Management Server through SmartConsole and ends when it is published. 
C)  Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway. 
D)  Sessions locks the policy package for editing. 
A)  Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole. 
B)  Starts when an Administrator logs in to the Security Management Server through SmartConsole and ends when it is published. 
C)  Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway. 
D)  Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

Question 8

ABC Corp., and have recently returned from a training course on Check Point's new advanced R80 management platform. You are presenting an in-house R80 Management to the other administrators in ABC Corp.   How will you describe the new " Publish " button in R80 Management Console?

Accepted Answer

A)  The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session, publishes a copy to the Check Point of R80, and then saves it to the R80 database. 
B)  The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session and publishes a copy to the Check Point Cloud of R80 and but does not save it to the R80 
C)  The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to all other administrator sessions and saves it to the Database. 
D)  The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to the new Unified Policy session and saves it to the Database. 
A)  The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session, publishes a copy to the Check Point of R80, and then saves it to the R80 database. 
B)  The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session and publishes a copy to the Check Point Cloud of R80 and but does not save it to the R80 
C)  The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to all other administrator sessions and saves it to the Database. 
D)  The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to the new Unified Policy session and saves it to the Database.

Question 9

Which information is included in the "Full Log" tracking option, but is not included in the "Log" tracking option?

Accepted Answer

A)  file attributes 
B)  application information 
C)  destination port 
D)  data type information 
A)  file attributes 
B)  application information 
C)  destination port 
D)  data type information

Question 10

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

Accepted Answer

A)  This is a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender 
B)  This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient 
C)  This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and to put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring). 
D)  Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast 
A)  This is a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender 
B)  This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient 
C)  This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and to put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring). 
D)  Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast

Question 11

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However, they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

Accepted Answer

A)  AD Query 
B)  Browser-Based Authentication 
C)  Identity Agents 
D)  Terminal Servers Agent 
A)  AD Query 
B)  Browser-Based Authentication 
C)  Identity Agents 
D)  Terminal Servers Agent

Question 12

What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

Accepted Answer

A)  It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination. 
B)  It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application. 
C)  It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer. 
D)  It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types. 
A)  It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination. 
B)  It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application. 
C)  It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer. 
D)  It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

Question 13

There are two R80.X0 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have higher priority than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was standby. Around 1100 am, its interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A's interface issues were resolved and it became operational. When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?

Accepted Answer

A)  No, since "maintain current active cluster member" option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default 
B)  No, since "maintain current active cluster member" option is enabled by default on the Global Properties 
C)  Yes, since "Switch to higher priority cluster member" option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default 
D)  Yes, since "Switch to higher priority cluster member" option is enabled by default on the Global Properties 
A)  No, since "maintain current active cluster member" option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default 
B)  No, since "maintain current active cluster member" option is enabled by default on the Global Properties 
C)  Yes, since "Switch to higher priority cluster member" option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default 
D)  Yes, since "Switch to higher priority cluster member" option is enabled by default on the Global Properties

Question 14

Choose the BEST describes the Policy Layer Traffic Inspection?

Accepted Answer

A)  If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the matching continues to the next Layer. 
B)  If a packet matches an inline layer, it will continue matching the next layer. 
C)  If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the packet will be matched against the Implicit Clean-up Rule. 
D)  If a packet does not match a Network Policy Layer, the matching continues to its inline layer. 
A)  If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the matching continues to the next Layer. 
B)  If a packet matches an inline layer, it will continue matching the next layer. 
C)  If a packet does not match any of the inline layers, the packet will be matched against the Implicit Clean-up Rule. 
D)  If a packet does not match a Network Policy Layer, the matching continues to its inline layer.

Question 15

What is the default method for destination NAT?

Accepted Answer

A)  Destination side 
B)  Source side 
C)  Server side 
D)  Client side 
A)  Destination side 
B)  Source side 
C)  Server side 
D)  Client side

Question 16

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R80 user definitions on a(an) ___________ Server.

Accepted Answer

A)  NT domain 
B)  SMTP 
C)  LDAP 
D)  SecurID 
A)  NT domain 
B)  SMTP 
C)  LDAP 
D)  SecurID

Question 17

Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

Accepted Answer

A)  To satellites through center only 
B)  To center only 
C)  To center and to other satellites through center 
D)  To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets 
A)  To satellites through center only 
B)  To center only 
C)  To center and to other satellites through center 
D)  To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets

Question 18

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

Accepted Answer

A)  Threat Emulation 
B)  Mobile Access 
C)  Mail Transfer Agent 
D)  Threat Cloud 
A)  Threat Emulation 
B)  Mobile Access 
C)  Mail Transfer Agent 
D)  Threat Cloud

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

Accepted Answer

A)  Terminal 
B)  Light 
C)  Full 
D)  Custom 
A)  Terminal 
B)  Light 
C)  Full 
D)  Custom

Question 20

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Accepted Answer

A)  IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client 
B)  SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client 
C)  SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same 
D)  IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser 
A)  IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client 
B)  SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client 
C)  SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same 
D)  IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

Where would an administrator enable Implied Rules logging?

You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators?

Choose what BEST describes a Session.

ABC Corp., and have recently returned from a training course on Check Point's new advanced R80 management platform. You are presenting an in-house R80 Management to the other administrators in ABC Corp. How will you describe the new " Publish " button in R80 Management Console?

Which information is included in the "Full Log" tracking option, but is not included in the "Log" tracking option?

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However, they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

Choose the BEST describes the Policy Layer Traffic Inspection?

What is the default method for destination NAT?

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R80 user definitions on a(an) ___________ Server.

Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Check Point Certified Security Principles Associate (CCSPA)

Check Point Certified Security Expert - R80

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Exam 2: Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA R80)

When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

Where would an administrator enable Implied Rules logging?

You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators?

Choose what BEST describes a Session.

ABC Corp., and have recently returned from a training course on Check Point's new advanced R80 management platform. You are presenting an in-house R80 Management to the other administrators in ABC Corp. How will you describe the new " Publish " button in R80 Management Console?

Which information is included in the "Full Log" tracking option, but is not included in the "Log" tracking option?

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However, they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

Choose the BEST describes the Policy Layer Traffic Inspection?

What is the default method for destination NAT?

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R80 user definitions on a(an) ___________ Server.

Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Check Point Certified Security Principles Associate (CCSPA)

Check Point Certified Security Expert - R80

Filters