Exam 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
Exam 1: Microbial Taxonomy12 Questions
Exam 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure29 Questions
Exam 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions34 Questions
Exam 4: Laboratory Safety37 Questions
Exam 5: Specimen Management28 Questions
Exam 6: Role of Microscopy24 Questions
Exam 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification41 Questions
Exam 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for Microbial Identification and Characterization29 Questions
Exam 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection27 Questions
Exam 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance15 Questions
Exam 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing37 Questions
Exam 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms16 Questions
Exam 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms21 Questions
Exam 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms11 Questions
Exam 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms12 Questions
Exam 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 18: Enterobacteriaceae20 Questions
Exam 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms10 Questions
Exam 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms25 Questions
Exam 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms9 Questions
Exam 22: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms12 Questions
Exam 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis, Comamonas, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and Chromobacterium Violaceum20 Questions
Exam 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms6 Questions
Exam 26: Moraxella11 Questions
Exam 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 30: Haemophilus20 Questions
Exam 31: Bartonella and Afipia5 Questions
Exam 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter10 Questions
Exam 33: Legionella8 Questions
Exam 34: Brucella5 Questions
Exam 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella Parapertussis10 Questions
Exam 36: Francisella5 Questions
Exam 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum Minus8 Questions
Exam 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis22 Questions
Exam 39: Overview and General Considerations24 Questions
Exam 40: Laboratory Considerations23 Questions
Exam 41: Mycobacteria45 Questions
Exam 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents10 Questions
Exam 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma10 Questions
Exam 44: The Spirochetes24 Questions
Exam 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology20 Questions
Exam 46: Intestinal Protozoa19 Questions
Exam 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa22 Questions
Exam 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites12 Questions
Exam 49: Intestinal Nematodes10 Questions
Exam 50: Tissue Nematodes8 Questions
Exam 51: Blood Nematodes10 Questions
Exam 52: Intestinal Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 53: Tissue Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 54: Intestinal Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes8 Questions
Exam 56: Blood Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies20 Questions
Exam 58: Hyaline Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses20 Questions
Exam 59: Dematiaceious Molds16 Questions
Exam 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii5 Questions
Exam 61: The Yeasts18 Questions
Exam 62: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, therapy, and Prevention9 Questions
Exam 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology35 Questions
Exam 64: Viruses in Human Disease32 Questions
Exam 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention18 Questions
Exam 66: Bloodstream Infections15 Questions
Exam 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract14 Questions
Exam 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck27 Questions
Exam 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central Nervous Systems12 Questions
Exam 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses14 Questions
Exam 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract10 Questions
Exam 72: Genital Tract Infections24 Questions
Exam 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections10 Questions
Exam 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections13 Questions
Exam 75: Normally Sterile Body Fluids, Bone and Bone Marrow, and Solid Tissues10 Questions
Exam 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory14 Questions
Exam 77: Infection Control10 Questions
Exam 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism5 Questions
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In the microdilution broth dilution method,the interpretive criteria for the susceptible,intermediate,or resistant categories are based on the:
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(Multiple Choice)
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B
Assaying bacterial isolates for resistance genes by molecular methods:
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(Multiple Choice)
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B
Chromogenic cephalosporins are used to test for:
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(Multiple Choice)
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C
Daptomycin requires free calcium for its antibacterial action,is inhibited by pulmonary surfactant,and has activity against gram-positive bacteria.Gram-positive bacterial isolates can be tested for daptomycin susceptibility.For which type of infection should daptomycin susceptibility NOT be reported?
(Multiple Choice)
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AST was performed using Mueller-Hinton agar with 5% sheep blood,35°C in 5% CO₂ from 24 hours according to standard protocols,what is the most likely identity of the organism being tested?
(Multiple Choice)
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A bacterial suspension of 1.5× 10⁸ colony-forming units (CFUs)/mL is comparable with which McFarland standard?
(Multiple Choice)
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Staphylococcal resistance to oxacillin is used to determine and report resistance to:
(Multiple Choice)
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Antimicrobial susceptibility testing should be performed when
(Multiple Choice)
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The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)result recorded in antimicrobial testing can be defined as the:
(Multiple Choice)
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Detection of the haze produced by some resistant staphylococci and enterococci against methicillin and vancomycin can best be accomplished by:
(Multiple Choice)
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A sputum culture from a cystic fibrosis patient grew Stenotrophomonas maltophila.A broth microdilution panel was inoculated.Antimicrobials tested included: ceftazidime,imipenem,ticarcillin-clavulanate,levofloxacin,and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.After 20-hour incubation at 35°C in ambient air,no growth was seen in any well of the microtiter plate.Which of the following statements is true?
(Multiple Choice)
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Enterococcal high-level gentamicin resistance predicts resistance to:
(Multiple Choice)
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The antibiotic nitrofurantoin is effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.This antibiotic is effective against which type of specimen?
(Multiple Choice)
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Enterococcal resistance to ampicillin predicts resistance to:
(Multiple Choice)
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What action should be taken for any isolate found to be nonsusceptible (NS)to a particular antimicrobial agent?
(Multiple Choice)
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MIC endpoints can be reported results obtained by the following conventional AST methods EXCEPT:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which antimicrobial susceptibility testing method uses a series of plates with different antimicrobial concentrations inoculated with multiple bacterial isolates per plate?
(Multiple Choice)
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In the disk diffusion method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing,what is the standard medium used for testing most bacterial organisms?
(Multiple Choice)
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S.pneumoniae was isolated from a spinal fluid sample from an inpatient.An oxacillin disk screening test was performed and the zone of inhibition measured 19 mm.Which action is most appropriate?
(Multiple Choice)
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