Exam 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
Exam 1: Microbial Taxonomy12 Questions
Exam 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure29 Questions
Exam 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions34 Questions
Exam 4: Laboratory Safety37 Questions
Exam 5: Specimen Management28 Questions
Exam 6: Role of Microscopy24 Questions
Exam 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification41 Questions
Exam 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for Microbial Identification and Characterization29 Questions
Exam 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection27 Questions
Exam 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance15 Questions
Exam 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing37 Questions
Exam 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms16 Questions
Exam 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms21 Questions
Exam 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms11 Questions
Exam 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms12 Questions
Exam 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 18: Enterobacteriaceae20 Questions
Exam 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms10 Questions
Exam 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms25 Questions
Exam 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms9 Questions
Exam 22: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms12 Questions
Exam 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis, Comamonas, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and Chromobacterium Violaceum20 Questions
Exam 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms6 Questions
Exam 26: Moraxella11 Questions
Exam 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 30: Haemophilus20 Questions
Exam 31: Bartonella and Afipia5 Questions
Exam 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter10 Questions
Exam 33: Legionella8 Questions
Exam 34: Brucella5 Questions
Exam 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella Parapertussis10 Questions
Exam 36: Francisella5 Questions
Exam 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum Minus8 Questions
Exam 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis22 Questions
Exam 39: Overview and General Considerations24 Questions
Exam 40: Laboratory Considerations23 Questions
Exam 41: Mycobacteria45 Questions
Exam 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents10 Questions
Exam 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma10 Questions
Exam 44: The Spirochetes24 Questions
Exam 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology20 Questions
Exam 46: Intestinal Protozoa19 Questions
Exam 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa22 Questions
Exam 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites12 Questions
Exam 49: Intestinal Nematodes10 Questions
Exam 50: Tissue Nematodes8 Questions
Exam 51: Blood Nematodes10 Questions
Exam 52: Intestinal Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 53: Tissue Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 54: Intestinal Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes8 Questions
Exam 56: Blood Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies20 Questions
Exam 58: Hyaline Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses20 Questions
Exam 59: Dematiaceious Molds16 Questions
Exam 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii5 Questions
Exam 61: The Yeasts18 Questions
Exam 62: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, therapy, and Prevention9 Questions
Exam 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology35 Questions
Exam 64: Viruses in Human Disease32 Questions
Exam 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention18 Questions
Exam 66: Bloodstream Infections15 Questions
Exam 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract14 Questions
Exam 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck27 Questions
Exam 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central Nervous Systems12 Questions
Exam 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses14 Questions
Exam 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract10 Questions
Exam 72: Genital Tract Infections24 Questions
Exam 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections10 Questions
Exam 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections13 Questions
Exam 75: Normally Sterile Body Fluids, Bone and Bone Marrow, and Solid Tissues10 Questions
Exam 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory14 Questions
Exam 77: Infection Control10 Questions
Exam 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism5 Questions
Select questions type
Match the vector with the organism it infects.Answers may be used more than once.
-T.brucei gambiense
Free
(Multiple Choice)
5.0/5
(40)
Correct Answer:
B
Match the vector with the organism it infects.Answers may be used more than once.
-T.brucei rhodesiense
Free
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(35)
Correct Answer:
B
P.vivax is suspected in a patient who has been traveling for months in the tropics.Blood was collected in a lavender top tube;however,the slide was not prepared for examination until the next day because the specimen came in on the night shift.Once the slide was prepared and examined,Schüffner dots were not visible.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(38)
Correct Answer:
D
Delicate ring forms and crescent-shaped gametocytes are the only forms normally observed in the peripheral blood of which Plasmodium spp.?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(33)
Match the size and shape of the parasitized RBCs as they appear in Giemsa-stained thin blood smears.Answers may be used more than once.
-P.falciparum
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(42)
Stage I of trypanosomiasis characteristically involves systemic trypanosomiasis infection without central nervous system (CNS)involvement.Lymphadenopathy is also a feature of this disease.The trypomastigotes of which protozoa are involved?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(38)
Resistance to chloroquine and mefloquine has been identified in which Plasmodium spp.?
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(34)
Ring forms and a "Maltese cross" were observed in a blood smear.The vector that transmits this disease is a(n):
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
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Humans contract Chagas disease when the reduviid bug defecates while taking a blood meal and the parasites in the feces are rubbed or scratched into the bite wound or onto mucosal surfaces.Which stage in the blood infects the host cells?
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(40)
Match the size and shape of the parasitized RBCs as they appear in Giemsa-stained thin blood smears.Answers may be used more than once.
-P.malariae
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(45)
In T.brucei rhodesiense trypanosomiasis infections,CNS invasion occurs early.The disease progresses rapidly,and death may occur before extensive CNS involvement.Inflammation of which organ is more common and severe with this disease form?
(Multiple Choice)
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A thick ring,large nucleus,and bands across the cell and 6 to 12 merozoites in a mature schizont are all characteristics of which Plasmodium spp.?
(Multiple Choice)
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Cerebral malaria is considered to be the most serious complication and major cause of death with which species of Plasmodium spp.?
(Multiple Choice)
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The vector Glossina palpalis group transmits the T.brucei gambiense organism.The diagnostic stage is the:
(Multiple Choice)
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(35)
Match the vector with the organism it infects.Answers may be used more than once.
-T.rypanosoma cruzi
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(32)
Match the size and shape of the parasitized RBCs as they appear in Giemsa-stained thin blood smears.Answers may be used more than once.
-P.knowlesi
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(24)
The most frequent clinical signs of chronic Chagas disease involve the enlargement of which organ?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(39)
Match the vector with the organism it infects.Answers may be used more than once.
-T.rangeli
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
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In cases of malaria,the primary exoerythrocytic cycle occurs in the:
(Multiple Choice)
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