Exam 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for Microbial Identification and Characterization
Exam 1: Microbial Taxonomy12 Questions
Exam 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure29 Questions
Exam 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions34 Questions
Exam 4: Laboratory Safety37 Questions
Exam 5: Specimen Management28 Questions
Exam 6: Role of Microscopy24 Questions
Exam 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification41 Questions
Exam 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for Microbial Identification and Characterization29 Questions
Exam 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection27 Questions
Exam 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance15 Questions
Exam 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing37 Questions
Exam 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms16 Questions
Exam 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms21 Questions
Exam 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms11 Questions
Exam 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms12 Questions
Exam 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 18: Enterobacteriaceae20 Questions
Exam 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms10 Questions
Exam 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms25 Questions
Exam 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms9 Questions
Exam 22: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms12 Questions
Exam 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis, Comamonas, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and Chromobacterium Violaceum20 Questions
Exam 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms6 Questions
Exam 26: Moraxella11 Questions
Exam 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms5 Questions
Exam 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms10 Questions
Exam 30: Haemophilus20 Questions
Exam 31: Bartonella and Afipia5 Questions
Exam 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter10 Questions
Exam 33: Legionella8 Questions
Exam 34: Brucella5 Questions
Exam 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella Parapertussis10 Questions
Exam 36: Francisella5 Questions
Exam 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum Minus8 Questions
Exam 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis22 Questions
Exam 39: Overview and General Considerations24 Questions
Exam 40: Laboratory Considerations23 Questions
Exam 41: Mycobacteria45 Questions
Exam 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents10 Questions
Exam 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma10 Questions
Exam 44: The Spirochetes24 Questions
Exam 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology20 Questions
Exam 46: Intestinal Protozoa19 Questions
Exam 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa22 Questions
Exam 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites12 Questions
Exam 49: Intestinal Nematodes10 Questions
Exam 50: Tissue Nematodes8 Questions
Exam 51: Blood Nematodes10 Questions
Exam 52: Intestinal Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 53: Tissue Cestodes5 Questions
Exam 54: Intestinal Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes8 Questions
Exam 56: Blood Trematodes5 Questions
Exam 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies20 Questions
Exam 58: Hyaline Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses20 Questions
Exam 59: Dematiaceious Molds16 Questions
Exam 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii5 Questions
Exam 61: The Yeasts18 Questions
Exam 62: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, therapy, and Prevention9 Questions
Exam 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology35 Questions
Exam 64: Viruses in Human Disease32 Questions
Exam 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention18 Questions
Exam 66: Bloodstream Infections15 Questions
Exam 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract14 Questions
Exam 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck27 Questions
Exam 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central Nervous Systems12 Questions
Exam 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses14 Questions
Exam 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract10 Questions
Exam 72: Genital Tract Infections24 Questions
Exam 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections10 Questions
Exam 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections13 Questions
Exam 75: Normally Sterile Body Fluids, Bone and Bone Marrow, and Solid Tissues10 Questions
Exam 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory14 Questions
Exam 77: Infection Control10 Questions
Exam 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism5 Questions
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Which type of hybridization method would be the optimal choice to use to detect a lesion infected with a particular virus?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
While developing a new hybridization-based molecular test for Cryptosporidium,a protozoan parasite that causes diarrheal illness,a laboratory technician examines the hybridization ability with a closely related,but nontarget,protozoan and also gets a positive test result.In order to improve the stringency of the hybridization reaction for detection of Cryptosporidium only,the technician can do which of the following?
Free
(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
B
After PCR,the amplification control has failed to yield a product.What should you do?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
D
Gel electrophoresis is used to separate nucleic acid amplicons based upon what physical property?
(Multiple Choice)
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If a patient sample contains 8 copies of viral DNA,predict how many DNA copies would be present following three rounds of PCR amplification.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following molecular techniques,or combination of techniques,would be most appropriate for detection and quantitation of an RNA retrovirus,like HIV,in a blood sample in order to establish the patient's viral load?
(Multiple Choice)
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Predict which of the following DNA oligonucleotide probes would have the highest melting temperature (Tm)when hybridizing to the target sequence 5'-GTGCCTGAATGCAATGTCA-3'.
(Multiple Choice)
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Isothermal amplification techniques,such as NASBA,utilize a single temperature for nucleic acid amplification thereby eliminating the need for thermal cycling instruments to precisely and quickly alter the reaction temperature.This often reduces the cost associated with molecular testing and infrastructure requirements.In what settings could this be advantageous?
(Multiple Choice)
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Target nucleic acid amplification (polymerase chain reaction [PCR])methods are based on:
(Multiple Choice)
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Gen-Probe Mycobacterium tuberculosis direct test uses which type of nucleic acid amplification test?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which enzyme recognizes a specific nucleotide sequence (~4 to 8 nucleotides in length)and catalyzes the digestion of the nucleic acid at that site,causing a break in the DNA strand?
(Multiple Choice)
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What key advantage do emerging technologies,such as MALDI-TOF and next generation sequencing,have over conventional hybridization and amplification techniques?
(Multiple Choice)
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Place the basic steps involved in a molecular hybridization assay in sequence from first to last in the order in which they would be performed.
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Which of the following steps are crucial for the success of a nucleic acid amplification test,such as PCR?
(Multiple Choice)
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Determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an unknown organism is based on which of the following methods?
(Multiple Choice)
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The enzyme that is commonly used for primer extensions in the PCR method works best at what temperature?
(Multiple Choice)
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What differentiates diagnostic techniques that employ phenotypic (culture-based)methods from those that employ molecular methods?
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Analytical sensitivity is concerned primarily with which of the following PCR parameters?
(Multiple Choice)
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