Exam 15: Recombinant Dna Technology
Exam 1: The Evolution of Microorganisms and Microbiology61 Questions
Exam 2: The Study of Microbial Structure: Microscopy and Specimen Preparation61 Questions
Exam 3: Bacteria and Archaea66 Questions
Exam 4: Eukaryotic Cell Structure and Function57 Questions
Exam 5: Viruses and Other Acellular Infectious Agents68 Questions
Exam 6: Microbial Nutrition57 Questions
Exam 7: Microbial Growth68 Questions
Exam 8: Control of Microorganisms in the Environment56 Questions
Exam 9: Introduction to Metabolism68 Questions
Exam 10: Catabolism Energy Release and Conservation61 Questions
Exam 11: Anabolism the Use of Energy in Biosynthesis54 Questions
Exam 12: Genes Structure, Replication, and Expression76 Questions
Exam 13: Microbial Genetics Regulation of Gene Expression54 Questions
Exam 14: Microbial Genetics Mechanisms of Genetic Variation73 Questions
Exam 15: Recombinant Dna Technology50 Questions
Exam 16: Microbial Genomics50 Questions
Exam 17: Microbial Taxonomy and the Evolution of Diversity50 Questions
Exam 18: The Archaea52 Questions
Exam 19: Bacteria the Deinococci and Nonproteobacteria Gram Negatives63 Questions
Exam 20: Bacteria the Proteobacteria59 Questions
Exam 21: Bacteria the Low G+C Gram Positives53 Questions
Exam 22: Bacteria the High G+C Gram Positives58 Questions
Exam 23: The Protists51 Questions
Exam 24: The Fungi Eumycota51 Questions
Exam 25: The Viruses63 Questions
Exam 26: Biogeochemical Cycling40 Questions
Exam 27: Methods in Microbial Ecology30 Questions
Exam 28: Microorganisms in Marine and Freshwater Ecosystems50 Questions
Exam 29: Microorganisms in Terrestrial Ecosystems50 Questions
Exam 30: Microbial Interactions61 Questions
Exam 31: Infection and Pathogenicity50 Questions
Exam 32: Nonspecific Innate Host Resistance59 Questions
Exam 33: Specific Adaptive Immunity76 Questions
Exam 34: Antimicrobial Chemotherapy69 Questions
Exam 35: Clinical Microbiology and Immunology50 Questions
Exam 36: Epidemiology and Public Health Microbiology49 Questions
Exam 37: Human Diseases Caused by Viruses and Prions56 Questions
Exam 38: Human Diseases Caused by Bacteria75 Questions
Exam 39: Human Diseases Caused by Fungi and Protists60 Questions
Exam 40: Microbiology of Food56 Questions
Exam 41: Industrial Microbiology29 Questions
Exam 42: Applied Environmental Microbiology40 Questions
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Electroporation is commonly used to introduce recombinant DNA molecules into cells.
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(True/False)
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True
Complementary DNA (cDNA) probes are produced using
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D
The enzyme reverse transcriptase was discovered by
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D
When a eukaryotic gene is cloned into a bacterium, the advantage of a complementary DNA (cDNA) gene being used instead of fragments of genomic DNA is that
(Multiple Choice)
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When a eukaryotic gene is expressed in a bacterium, the eukaryotic regulatory sequences should be maintained in order to achieve maximum expression of the gene.
(True/False)
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A (n) __________ vector contains promoters that result in high-level transcription of the gene cloned within a multicloning site.
(Multiple Choice)
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The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to produce __________ of copies in a few hours.
(Multiple Choice)
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Genetic engineering has allowed the useful production of human hemoglobin in
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The thermostable enzyme most commonly used in PCR is reverse transcriptase.
(True/False)
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Which of the following is true about restriction endonucleases?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following was first produced commercially using recombinant DNA technology?
(Multiple Choice)
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In order to express eukaryotic genes in a bacterium, the __________ must first be removed.
(Multiple Choice)
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Recombinant DNA technology does not rely on which of the following enzymes?
(Multiple Choice)
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Regardless of the exact approach taken to recombinant DNA technology, one of the keys to successful cloning is choosing the right vector.
(True/False)
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Plasmid vectors often contain __________ genes that can be used to screen for recombinants.
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