Question 1

Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH?

Accepted Answer

A)  transport input telnet ssh 
B)  transport input telnet 
C)  no transport input telnet 
D)  privilege level 15 
A)  transport input telnet ssh 
B)  transport input telnet 
C)  no transport input telnet 
D)  privilege level 15 A

Question 2

Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

Accepted Answer

A)  management 
B)  protected frame 
C)  action 
D)  control 
A)  management 
B)  protected frame 
C)  action 
D)  control A

Question 3

What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  Thrift 
B)  DSC 
C)  CORBA 
D)  NETCONF 
E)  OpenFlow 
A)  Thrift 
B)  DSC 
C)  CORBA 
D)  NETCONF 
E)  OpenFlow D,E

Question 4

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3. The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168.1.0/30 subnet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides 
B)  configure both interfaces with the same area ID 
C)  configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides 
D)  configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process 
E)  configure the same router ID on both routing processes 
A)  configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides 
B)  configure both interfaces with the same area ID 
C)  configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides 
D)  configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process 
E)  configure the same router ID on both routing processes

Question 5

Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  channel-group 10 mode on 
B)  channel-group 10 mode auto 
C)  channel-group 10 mode passive 
D)  channel-group 10 mode desirable 
E)  channel-group 10 mode active 
A)  channel-group 10 mode on 
B)  channel-group 10 mode auto 
C)  channel-group 10 mode passive 
D)  channel-group 10 mode desirable 
E)  channel-group 10 mode active

Question 6

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe, but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Accepted Answer

A)  user awareness 
B)  brute force attack 
C)  physical access control 
D)  social engineering attack 
A)  user awareness 
B)  brute force attack 
C)  physical access control 
D)  social engineering attack

Question 7

Which command do you run to reset a Firepower module on a Cisco ASA 5585-X firewall?

Accepted Answer

A)  sw-module module sfr recover boot 
B)  sw-module module sfr reload 
C)  hw-module module 1 reload 
D)  hw-module module 1 recover boot 
A)  sw-module module sfr recover boot 
B)  sw-module module sfr reload 
C)  hw-module module 1 reload 
D)  hw-module module 1 recover boot

Question 8

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

Accepted Answer

A)  It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information 
B)  It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric 
C)  It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination 
D)  It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself as the default gateway of a network 
A)  It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information 
B)  It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric 
C)  It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination 
D)  It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself as the default gateway of a network

Question 9

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?

Accepted Answer

A)  Client Band Select 
B)  Re-Anchor Roamed Clients 
C)  OEAP Spilt Tunnel 
D)  11ac MU-MIMO 
A)  Client Band Select 
B)  Re-Anchor Roamed Clients 
C)  OEAP Spilt Tunnel 
D)  11ac MU-MIMO

Question 10

What advantage does elliptic curve cryptography have over RSA cryptography?

Accepted Answer

A)  ECC compresses the enciphered data 
B)  ECC has wider industry adoption 
C)  ECC utilizes symmetric encryption for greater performance 
D)  ECC provides greater security with a smaller key size 
A)  ECC compresses the enciphered data 
B)  ECC has wider industry adoption 
C)  ECC utilizes symmetric encryption for greater performance 
D)  ECC provides greater security with a smaller key size

Question 11

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a user's password? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  It encourages users to create stronger passwords 
B)  It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access 
C)  It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality 
D)  It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user 
E)  It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site 
A)  It encourages users to create stronger passwords 
B)  It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access 
C)  It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality 
D)  It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user 
E)  It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

Accepted Answer

A)  192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240 
B)  192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252 
C)  192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240 
D)  192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252 
E)  192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240
F) 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252 
A)  192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240 
B)  192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252 
C)  192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240 
D)  192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252 
E)  192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240
F) 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252

Question 13

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?

Accepted Answer

A)  a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch 
B)  a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch 
C)  a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches 
D)  a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches 
A)  a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch 
B)  a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch 
C)  a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches 
D)  a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

Question 14

Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses?

Accepted Answer

A)  multicast 
B)  unique local 
C)  link-local 
D)  global unicast 
A)  multicast 
B)  unique local 
C)  link-local 
D)  global unicast

Question 15

Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  0 
B)  1 
C)  1005 
D)  1006 
E)  4096 
A)  0 
B)  1 
C)  1005 
D)  1006 
E)  4096

Question 16

An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

Accepted Answer

A)  interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 
B)  ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 
C)  ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 
D)  ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252 
A)  interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 
B)  ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 
C)  ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 
D)  ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252

Question 17

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Accepted Answer

A)  WSA 
B)  Firepower 
C)  ASA 
D)  FireSIGHT 
A)  WSA 
B)  Firepower 
C)  ASA 
D)  FireSIGHT

Question 18

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

Accepted Answer

A)  ipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/0 
B)  ipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/1 
C)  ipv6 route:0/0 Serial 0/0/0 
D)  ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 
A)  ipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/0 
B)  ipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/1 
C)  ipv6 route:0/0 Serial 0/0/0 
D)  ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

Question 19

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  reduced hardware footprint 
B)  reduced operational costs 
C)  faster changes with more reliable results 
D)  fewer network failures 
E)  increased network security 
A)  reduced hardware footprint 
B)  reduced operational costs 
C)  faster changes with more reliable results 
D)  fewer network failures 
E)  increased network security

Question 20

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP, and Internal EIGRP. Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

Accepted Answer

A)  IS-IS 
B)  Internal EIGRP 
C)  RIP 
D)  OSPF 
A)  IS-IS 
B)  Internal EIGRP 
C)  RIP 
D)  OSPF

Exam 4: Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH?

Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two.)

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3. The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168.1.0/30 subnet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe, but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Which command do you run to reset a Firepower module on a Cisco ASA 5585-X firewall?

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?

What advantage does elliptic curve cryptography have over RSA cryptography?

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a user's password? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?

Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses?

Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.)

An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP, and Internal EIGRP. Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices (DCTECH)

Cisco Certified Technician Routing & Switching (RSTECH)

Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)

Managing Industrial Networks with Cisco Networking Technologies (IMINS)

DevNet Associate (DEVASC)

Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR)

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)

Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)

Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)

Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (300-425 ENWLSD)

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (300-430 ENWLSI)

Automating Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUTO)

Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (SPRI)

Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services (SPVI)

Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)

Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCIT)

Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure (DCACI)

Configuring Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches (DCSAN)

Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure - Advanced

Automating Cisco Data Center Solutions (DCAUTO)

Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (300-710 SNCF)

Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine (300-715 SISE)

Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (300-720 SESA)

Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (300-725 SWSA)

Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks (SVPN 300-730)

Automating Cisco Security Solutions (SAUTO)

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)

Implementing Cisco Advanced Call Control and Mobility Services (CLASSM)

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing

Automating Cisco Collaboration Solutions (CLAUTO)

Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (DEVOPS)

Developing Solutions Using Cisco IoT and Edge Platforms (DEVIOT)

Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)

Performing CyberOps Using Core Security Technologies (CBRCOR)

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)

Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)

Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR)

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR)

Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR)

CCDE Design Written

Deploying Cisco Unified Contact Center Express

Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist

Securing Cisco Networks with Sourcefire FireAMP Endpoints

Designing Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (UCCED)

Implementing and Supporting Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (UCCEIS)

Cisco Collaboration SaaS Authorization Exam

Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers

Adopting The Cisco Business Architecture Approach (DTBAA)

Cisco Customer Success Manager (CSM)

Mastering The Cisco Business Architecture Discipline (DTBAD)

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