Question 1

Which standard access control entry permits traffic from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?

Accepted Answer

A)  permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.1 
B)  permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254 
C)  permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.0 
D)  permit 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.254 
A)  permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.1 
B)  permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254 
C)  permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.0 
D)  permit 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.254

Question 2

A network is being migrated from IPv4 to IPv6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100% IPv6 enabled. In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collectors, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?

Accepted Answer

A)  1 
B)  2 
C)  4 
D)  8 
A)  1 
B)  2 
C)  4 
D)  8

Question 3

At which layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

Accepted Answer

A)  session layer 
B)  northbound APIs 
C)  EEM applets or scripts 
D)  YAML output from responses to API calls 
A)  session layer 
B)  northbound APIs 
C)  EEM applets or scripts 
D)  YAML output from responses to API calls

Question 4

How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

Accepted Answer

A)  uses flexible NetFlow 
B)  assigns a VLAN to the endpoint 
C)  classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition 
D)  classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address 
A)  uses flexible NetFlow 
B)  assigns a VLAN to the endpoint 
C)  classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition 
D)  classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address

Question 5

In a Cisco DNA Center Plug and Play environment, why would a device be labeled unclaimed?

Accepted Answer

A)  The device has not been assigned a workflow. 
B)  The device could not be added to the fabric. 
C)  The device had an error and could not be provisioned. 
D)  The device is from a third-party vendor. 
A)  The device has not been assigned a workflow. 
B)  The device could not be added to the fabric. 
C)  The device had an error and could not be provisioned. 
D)  The device is from a third-party vendor.

Question 6

Which reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state?

Accepted Answer

A)  mismatched OSPF link costs 
B)  mismatched OSPF network type 
C)  mismatched areas 
D)  mismatched MTU size 
A)  mismatched OSPF link costs 
B)  mismatched OSPF network type 
C)  mismatched areas 
D)  mismatched MTU size

Question 7

Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?

Accepted Answer

A)  Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes. 
B)  Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves. 
C)  Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes. 
D)  Agent-based tools do not require installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes. 
A)  Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes. 
B)  Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves. 
C)  Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes. 
D)  Agent-based tools do not require installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.

Question 8

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?

Accepted Answer

A)  Active 
B)  Passive 
C)  On 
D)  Auto 
A)  Active 
B)  Passive 
C)  On 
D)  Auto

Question 9

Which access control list allows only TCP traffic with a destination port range of 22-443, excluding port 80?

Accepted Answer

A)  deny tcp any any eq 80 permit tcp any any gt 21 lt 444 
B)  permit tcp any any range 22 443 
C)  permit tcp any any ne 80 
D)  deny tcp any any ne 80 
A)  deny tcp any any eq 80 permit tcp any any gt 21 lt 444 
B)  permit tcp any any range 22 443 
C)  permit tcp any any ne 80 
D)  deny tcp any any ne 80

Question 10

Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz. 
B)  Reduce AP transmit power. 
C)  Enable Fastlane. 
D)  Increase minimum mandatory data rate. 
E)  Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz. 
A)  Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz. 
B)  Reduce AP transmit power. 
C)  Enable Fastlane. 
D)  Increase minimum mandatory data rate. 
E)  Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz.

Question 11

Which feature must be configured to allow packet capture over Layer 3 infrastructure?

Accepted Answer

A)  RSPAN 
B)  ERSPAN 
C)  VSPAN 
D)  IPSPAN 
A)  RSPAN 
B)  ERSPAN 
C)  VSPAN 
D)  IPSPAN

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit.   Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent?

Accepted Answer

A)  multidirectional 
B)  directional patch 
C)  omnidirectional 
D)  Yagi 
A)  multidirectional 
B)  directional patch 
C)  omnidirectional 
D)  Yagi

Question 13

What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?

Accepted Answer

A)  The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers. 
B)  The RP acts as a control-plane node only and does not receive or forward multicast packets. 
C)  The RP is the multicast router that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree. 
D)  The RP responds to the PIM join messages with the source of a requested multicast group. 
A)  The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers. 
B)  The RP acts as a control-plane node only and does not receive or forward multicast packets. 
C)  The RP is the multicast router that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree. 
D)  The RP responds to the PIM join messages with the source of a requested multicast group.

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration. Which interface or interfaces are able to establish OSPF adjacency?

Accepted Answer

A)  GigabitEthernet0/0 and GigabitEthernet0/1 
B)  only GigabitEthernet0/1 
C)  only GigabitEthernet0/0 
D)  GigabitEthernet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/1.40 
A)  GigabitEthernet0/0 and GigabitEthernet0/1 
B)  only GigabitEthernet0/1 
C)  only GigabitEthernet0/0 
D)  GigabitEthernet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/1.40

Question 15

How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?

Accepted Answer

A)  It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate. 
B)  It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate. 
C)  It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery. 
D)  It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues. 
A)  It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate. 
B)  It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate. 
C)  It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery. 
D)  It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues.

Question 16

Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?

Accepted Answer

A)  Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic. 
B)  Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP. 
C)  Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks. 
D)  Provides reachability between border nodes in the fabric underlay. 
A)  Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic. 
B)  Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP. 
C)  Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks. 
D)  Provides reachability between border nodes in the fabric underlay.

Question 17

Which two namespaces does the LISP network architecture and protocol use? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

A)  TLOC 
B)  RLOC 
C)  DNS 
D)  VTEP 
E)  EID 
A)  TLOC 
B)  RLOC 
C)  DNS 
D)  VTEP 
E)  EID

Question 18

When configuring WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?

Accepted Answer

A)  PKI server 
B)  NTP server 
C)  RADIUS server 
D)  TACACS server 
A)  PKI server 
B)  NTP server 
C)  RADIUS server 
D)  TACACS server

Question 19

How does the RIB differ from the FIB?

Accepted Answer

A)  The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. 
B)  The FIB includes many routes to a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination. 
C)  The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. 
D)  The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route. 
A)  The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. 
B)  The FIB includes many routes to a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination. 
C)  The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. 
D)  The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route.

Question 20

Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43?

Accepted Answer

A)  The AP is joining a primed WLC 
B)  The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2 
C)  The AP multicast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3 
D)  The WLC is running a different software version 
A)  The AP is joining a primed WLC 
B)  The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2 
C)  The AP multicast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3 
D)  The WLC is running a different software version

Exam 38: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR)

Which standard access control entry permits traffic from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?

A network is being migrated from IPv4 to IPv6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100% IPv6 enabled. In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collectors, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?

At which layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

In a Cisco DNA Center Plug and Play environment, why would a device be labeled unclaimed?

Which reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state?

Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?

Which access control list allows only TCP traffic with a destination port range of 22-443, excluding port 80?

Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two.)

Which feature must be configured to allow packet capture over Layer 3 infrastructure?

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent?

What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration. Which interface or interfaces are able to establish OSPF adjacency?

How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?

Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?

Which two namespaces does the LISP network architecture and protocol use? (Choose two.)

When configuring WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?

How does the RIB differ from the FIB?

Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43?

Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices (DCTECH)

Cisco Certified Technician Routing & Switching (RSTECH)

Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)

Managing Industrial Networks with Cisco Networking Technologies (IMINS)

DevNet Associate (DEVASC)

Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR)

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)

Implementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI)

Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)

Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (300-425 ENWLSD)

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (300-430 ENWLSI)

Automating Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUTO)

Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (SPRI)

Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services (SPVI)

Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)

Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCIT)

Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure (DCACI)

Configuring Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches (DCSAN)

Implementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure - Advanced

Automating Cisco Data Center Solutions (DCAUTO)

Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (300-710 SNCF)

Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine (300-715 SISE)

Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (300-720 SESA)

Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (300-725 SWSA)

Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks (SVPN 300-730)

Automating Cisco Security Solutions (SAUTO)

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA)

Implementing Cisco Advanced Call Control and Mobility Services (CLASSM)

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing

Automating Cisco Collaboration Solutions (CLAUTO)

Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (DEVOPS)

Developing Solutions Using Cisco IoT and Edge Platforms (DEVIOT)

Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)

Performing CyberOps Using Core Security Technologies (CBRCOR)

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)

Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR)

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR)

Developing Applications using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR)

CCDE Design Written

Deploying Cisco Unified Contact Center Express

Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist

Securing Cisco Networks with Sourcefire FireAMP Endpoints

Designing Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (UCCED)

Implementing and Supporting Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (UCCEIS)

Cisco Collaboration SaaS Authorization Exam

Cisco Security Architecture for System Engineers

Adopting The Cisco Business Architecture Approach (DTBAA)

Cisco Customer Success Manager (CSM)

Mastering The Cisco Business Architecture Discipline (DTBAD)

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