Question 1

Describe how the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) works and discuss its applications.

Accepted Answer

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) tech

Question 2

According to the agglutination tests pictured below, what is the blood type of the sample being tested?

Accepted Answer

A)  A 
B)  B 
C)  O 
D)  AB 
E)  Could be either A or B 
A)  A 
B)  B 
C)  O 
D)  AB 
E)  Could be either A or B

Question 3

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techniques can detect the presence as few as a single viral particle in a sample.

Accepted Answer

A) True 
 B)False

Question 4

Plaque reduction neutralization tests are based on the fact that

Accepted Answer

A)  T cells will release interferon- gamma during certain infections. 
B)  a reporter enzyme can be bound to an antibody to provide a visual change with a positive test. 
C)  antibodies bound to antigen will precipitate in a gel matrix. 
D)  antibodies have two antigen- binding sites and will cause clumping when bound to antigen. 
E)  the presence of antibodies in a patient's serum will prevent viral infection of cells in culture. 
A)  T cells will release interferon- gamma during certain infections. 
B)  a reporter enzyme can be bound to an antibody to provide a visual change with a positive test. 
C)  antibodies bound to antigen will precipitate in a gel matrix. 
D)  antibodies have two antigen- binding sites and will cause clumping when bound to antigen. 
E)  the presence of antibodies in a patient's serum will prevent viral infection of cells in culture.

Question 5

In a direct ELISA, the reporter enzyme

Accepted Answer

A)  reacts directly with the antigen the assay is seeking and chemically modifies an added substrate to generate a colorimetric or chemiluminescent change. 
B)  is bound to the detection antibody. 
C)  reacts directly with the antigen the assay is seeking. 
D)  is bound to the detection antibody and chemically modifies an added substrate to generate a colorimetric or chemiluminescent change. 
E)  chemically modifies an added substrate to generate a colorimetric or chemiluminescent change. 
A)  reacts directly with the antigen the assay is seeking and chemically modifies an added substrate to generate a colorimetric or chemiluminescent change. 
B)  is bound to the detection antibody. 
C)  reacts directly with the antigen the assay is seeking. 
D)  is bound to the detection antibody and chemically modifies an added substrate to generate a colorimetric or chemiluminescent change. 
E)  chemically modifies an added substrate to generate a colorimetric or chemiluminescent change.

Question 6

The technique of vaccination as developed by Jenner was an improvement over variolation because

Accepted Answer

A)  the smallpox virus mutates frequently but the cowpox virus does not. 
B)  cowpox vaccination was not just preventative but could also cure an active case of smallpox. 
C)  cowpox was common in Europe at the time while smallpox was not. 
D)  the cowpox virus used by Jenner was not fatal to humans but provided protection against smallpox. 
E)  Jenner's technique required a lower rate of herd immunity to prevent the spread of smallpox. 
A)  the smallpox virus mutates frequently but the cowpox virus does not. 
B)  cowpox vaccination was not just preventative but could also cure an active case of smallpox. 
C)  cowpox was common in Europe at the time while smallpox was not. 
D)  the cowpox virus used by Jenner was not fatal to humans but provided protection against smallpox. 
E)  Jenner's technique required a lower rate of herd immunity to prevent the spread of smallpox.

Question 7

Which aspect of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is mismatched with its description?

Accepted Answer

A)  variable temperatures: the highest temperature required for double- stranded DNA separation, the lowest temperature to allow primers to anneal, and a midrange- temperature for DNA replication 
B)  Taq polymerase: a DNA- replication enzyme which functions at high temperatures 
C)  dNTPs: building blocks of DNA 
D)  template DNA: the DNA to be copied; must be present at a high concentration for the procedure to work 
E)  DNA primers: sequences specifically chosen to be complementary to the DNA which flanks a target gene or region of interest 
A)  variable temperatures: the highest temperature required for double- stranded DNA separation, the lowest temperature to allow primers to anneal, and a midrange- temperature for DNA replication 
B)  Taq polymerase: a DNA- replication enzyme which functions at high temperatures 
C)  dNTPs: building blocks of DNA 
D)  template DNA: the DNA to be copied; must be present at a high concentration for the procedure to work 
E)  DNA primers: sequences specifically chosen to be complementary to the DNA which flanks a target gene or region of interest

Question 8

A radial immunodiffusion test is helpful for

Accepted Answer

A)  testing the patient's serum for diverse antigens. 
B)  quantifying the amount of an antigen present in a sample. 
C)  quantifying the amount of an antigen or of diverse antibody isotypes in a sample. 
D)  quantifying the amount of different antibody isotypes in a sample. 
E)  quantifying the amount of an antigen or of diverse antibody isotypes in a sample, or testing the patient's serum for diverse antigens. 
A)  testing the patient's serum for diverse antigens. 
B)  quantifying the amount of an antigen present in a sample. 
C)  quantifying the amount of an antigen or of diverse antibody isotypes in a sample. 
D)  quantifying the amount of different antibody isotypes in a sample. 
E)  quantifying the amount of an antigen or of diverse antibody isotypes in a sample, or testing the patient's serum for diverse antigens.

Question 9

Compared to a direct ELISA, a sandwich ELISA

Accepted Answer

A)  is less sensitive. 
B)  does not depend on a reporter enzyme. 
C)  only requires the use of one antibody. 
D)  can be designed to be read without a plate reader, making it suitable for home use. 
E)  does not require unbound antibody to be washed away. 
A)  is less sensitive. 
B)  does not depend on a reporter enzyme. 
C)  only requires the use of one antibody. 
D)  can be designed to be read without a plate reader, making it suitable for home use. 
E)  does not require unbound antibody to be washed away.

Question 10

Agglutination tests make use of the fact that

Accepted Answer

A)  T cells will release interferon- gamma during certain infections. 
B)  antibodies have two antigen- binding sites and will cause clumping when bound to antigen. 
C)  antibodies bound to antigen will precipitate in a gel matrix. 
D)  a reporter enzyme can be bound to an antibody to provide a visual change with a positive test. 
E)  the presence of antibodies in a patient's serum will prevent viral infection of cells in culture. 
A)  T cells will release interferon- gamma during certain infections. 
B)  antibodies have two antigen- binding sites and will cause clumping when bound to antigen. 
C)  antibodies bound to antigen will precipitate in a gel matrix. 
D)  a reporter enzyme can be bound to an antibody to provide a visual change with a positive test. 
E)  the presence of antibodies in a patient's serum will prevent viral infection of cells in culture.

Question 11

In order to successfully and safely deliver a gene to a human cell, a virus vector must be

Accepted Answer

A)  pathogenic but not infectious. 
B)  both infectious and pathogenic. 
C)  infectious but not pathogenic. 
D)  a retrovirus. 
E)  packaged with RNA rather than DNA. 
A)  pathogenic but not infectious. 
B)  both infectious and pathogenic. 
C)  infectious but not pathogenic. 
D)  a retrovirus. 
E)  packaged with RNA rather than DNA.

Question 12

The risk of a vaccine for an immunocompromised individual is higher for inactivated vaccines than for live attenuated vaccines.

Accepted Answer

A) True 
 B)False

Question 13

The more closely a vaccination agent resembles the actual infectious agent, the more likely a strong adaptive immune response will be elicited.

Accepted Answer

A) True 
 B)False

Question 14

Adjuvants appear to work by

Accepted Answer

A)  encouraging the uptake and processing of antigens by dendritic cells. 
B)  stimulating cytokine release and encouraging the uptake and processing of antigens by dendritic cells. 
C)  stimulating isotype- switching in B cells. 
D)  stimulating isotype- switching in B cells and cytokine release. 
E)  stimulating cytokine release. 
A)  encouraging the uptake and processing of antigens by dendritic cells. 
B)  stimulating cytokine release and encouraging the uptake and processing of antigens by dendritic cells. 
C)  stimulating isotype- switching in B cells. 
D)  stimulating isotype- switching in B cells and cytokine release. 
E)  stimulating cytokine release.

Question 15

A genetics- based test which would help physicians determine whether a given a cancer will recur, or what types of chemotherapy or radiation therapy treatments would be most successful would be

Accepted Answer

A)  CRISPR- Cas9. 
B)  genome mapping. 
C)  DNA microarray. 
D)  real- time PCR. 
E)  recombinant DNA techniques. 
A)  CRISPR- Cas9. 
B)  genome mapping. 
C)  DNA microarray. 
D)  real- time PCR. 
E)  recombinant DNA techniques.

Question 16

In the practice of variolation, how were patients exposed to the smallpox pathogen?

Accepted Answer

A)  Babies were nursed by women who had already had smallpox. 
B)  They were exposed to bedding or clothes of a person with smallpox. 
C)  They were placed in a room with a person who currently had smallpox. 
D)  They were exposed to dried scabs from smallpox lesions. 
E)  They were exposed to a bovine version of the disease, which is mild in humans. 
A)  Babies were nursed by women who had already had smallpox. 
B)  They were exposed to bedding or clothes of a person with smallpox. 
C)  They were placed in a room with a person who currently had smallpox. 
D)  They were exposed to dried scabs from smallpox lesions. 
E)  They were exposed to a bovine version of the disease, which is mild in humans.

Question 17

Conjugate vaccines which link the target antigen to a more immunogenic antigen are usually for

Accepted Answer

A)  vaccines against bacterial polysaccharide antigens. 
B)  vaccines against viral envelopes. 
C)  vaccines against viral nucleic acid. 
D)  vaccines against bacterial exotoxins. 
E)  vaccines against Gram- negative endotoxin. 
A)  vaccines against bacterial polysaccharide antigens. 
B)  vaccines against viral envelopes. 
C)  vaccines against viral nucleic acid. 
D)  vaccines against bacterial exotoxins. 
E)  vaccines against Gram- negative endotoxin.

Question 18

The aspect of the immune response that vaccines are based on is

Accepted Answer

A)  stimulation of cellular, as opposed to humoral, immunity. 
B)  stimulation of phagocytosis. 
C)  protection of the normal microbiota. 
D)  inflammation and fever. 
E)  production of memory cells and high antibody titers from pathogen exposure. 
A)  stimulation of cellular, as opposed to humoral, immunity. 
B)  stimulation of phagocytosis. 
C)  protection of the normal microbiota. 
D)  inflammation and fever. 
E)  production of memory cells and high antibody titers from pathogen exposure.

Question 19

How does immunofluorescence microscopy detect rabies in brain tissue of an infected animal?

Accepted Answer

A)  Fluorescent- tagged antibodies bind to rabies antigen in the tissue and are visible in a specialized microscope. 
B)  Rabies virus naturally fluoresces under ultraviolet light. 
C)  Fluorescent- tagged antibodies bind to the antibodies generated to fight the infection. 
D)  Fluorescent- tagged antibodies bind to cytotoxic T cells that are attempting to kill infected cells in the tissue. 
E)  Fluorescent- tagged antibodies provide light needed to see the virus particles in the microscope. 
A)  Fluorescent- tagged antibodies bind to rabies antigen in the tissue and are visible in a specialized microscope. 
B)  Rabies virus naturally fluoresces under ultraviolet light. 
C)  Fluorescent- tagged antibodies bind to the antibodies generated to fight the infection. 
D)  Fluorescent- tagged antibodies bind to cytotoxic T cells that are attempting to kill infected cells in the tissue. 
E)  Fluorescent- tagged antibodies provide light needed to see the virus particles in the microscope.

Question 20

Genome mapping

Accepted Answer

A)  documents the position of every nucleotide and provides a blueprint for the proteins and regulatory RNAs produced by a cell. 
B)  documents the position of every nucleotide. 
C)  may reveal the presence of "pathogenicity islands" as well as information about genes for basic cellular functions. 
D)  documents the position of every nucleotide, provides a blueprint for the proteins and regulatory RNAs produced by a cell, and may reveal the presence of "pathogenicity islands" as well as information about genes for basic cellular functions. 
E)  provides a blueprint for the proteins and regulatory RNAs produced by a cell. 
A)  documents the position of every nucleotide and provides a blueprint for the proteins and regulatory RNAs produced by a cell. 
B)  documents the position of every nucleotide. 
C)  may reveal the presence of "pathogenicity islands" as well as information about genes for basic cellular functions. 
D)  documents the position of every nucleotide, provides a blueprint for the proteins and regulatory RNAs produced by a cell, and may reveal the presence of "pathogenicity islands" as well as information about genes for basic cellular functions. 
E)  provides a blueprint for the proteins and regulatory RNAs produced by a cell.

Exam 14: Vaccines and Biotechnology-Based Diagnostics and Therapeutics

Describe how the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) works and discuss its applications.

According to the agglutination tests pictured below, what is the blood type of the sample being tested?

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) techniques can detect the presence as few as a single viral particle in a sample.

Plaque reduction neutralization tests are based on the fact that

In a direct ELISA, the reporter enzyme

The technique of vaccination as developed by Jenner was an improvement over variolation because

Which aspect of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is mismatched with its description?

A radial immunodiffusion test is helpful for

Compared to a direct ELISA, a sandwich ELISA

Agglutination tests make use of the fact that

In order to successfully and safely deliver a gene to a human cell, a virus vector must be

The risk of a vaccine for an immunocompromised individual is higher for inactivated vaccines than for live attenuated vaccines.

The more closely a vaccination agent resembles the actual infectious agent, the more likely a strong adaptive immune response will be elicited.

Adjuvants appear to work by

A genetics- based test which would help physicians determine whether a given a cancer will recur, or what types of chemotherapy or radiation therapy treatments would be most successful would be

In the practice of variolation, how were patients exposed to the smallpox pathogen?

Conjugate vaccines which link the target antigen to a more immunogenic antigen are usually for

The aspect of the immune response that vaccines are based on is

How does immunofluorescence microscopy detect rabies in brain tissue of an infected animal?

Genome mapping

Introduction to Microbiology

Biochemistry Basics

Introduction to Prokaryotic Cells

Introduction to Eukaryotic Cells

Genetics

Viruses and Prions

Fundamentals of Microbial Growth

Microbial Metabolism

Principles of Infectious Disease and Epidemiology

Host-Microbe Interactions and Pathogenesis

Innate Immunity

Adaptive Immunity

Immune System Disorders

Antimicrobial Drugs

Respiratory System Infections

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